Sunday, 18 December 2016

Echad means One!

many perverted nasaras claim that the Hebrew word for Echad (One) actually doesn't mean one? In other to fulfill their vain desires they use a statement which Jesus had suppose to have made a perfect example will be when Jesus suppose to have said two flesh become ONE :

"Haven't you read," he replied, "that at the beginning the Creator 'made them male and female,' and said, 'For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh'? (Matthew 19:4-5) 

Thats a common reply Christians give and to be honest it's a very lame one, firstly we can be sure it's a metaphorical statement since two flesh cannot be ONE unless you went through some serious medical surgery secondly suppose we even took this ECHAD ( ONE ) to actually mean more then one then we will face some seriously problems that's if we use the analogy for all other statement found in the bible right ?? Let's see what we can make of this  word ECHAD : 

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But they replied, "Your servants were twelve brothers, the sons of ONE man, who lives in the land of Canaan. The youngest is now with our father, and one is no more."
(Genesis 42:13)

Son of ONE man (l.e Jacob ) shall we conclude the twelve brothers had more then ONE Father?? Let's carry on.

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Now the LORD had said to Moses, "I will bring ONE more plague on Pharaoh and on Egypt. After that, he will let you go from here, and when he does, he will drive you out completely. (Exodus 11:1)

How many more plague were brought to pharaoh? Was that not the LAST "ONE" or were there more after ??? Since they all drowned and no more plague touched them let's carry on.

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And Solomon's provision for ONE day was thirty measures of fine flour, and threescore measures of meal, (1 kings 4:22)

Now Solomons wealth in ONE day accumulated to such an amount? The question is does the ONE day mean ONE or more then ONE day? Wouldn't that really change his statue  


Also note of one doesn't mean one. Then we can conclude a man can marry more then one wife? Since they very word one doesn't mean One it means more then One.

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This is what Anthony buzzard had to say about ECHAD 



There are some 970 occurrences of “one” (echad) in the Hebrew Bible. The word means “one and not more than one.”  One single! The fact that one day has an evening and morning (Gen. 1:5) does not in any way alter the meaning of the word “one”! Do think this through carefully and show your children! “Abraham was one [echad] person” (Ezek. 33:24). What does that tell you about the plurality of Abraham?! Nothing. The language is exactly the same for God. Abraham and God are each “one p/Person”!

Jesus said, “The Lord our God is one Lord,” (Mark 12:29) and his word is final. “One Lord” is not more than one Lord! Mark 12:29 has yet to make its impact on the churchgoing

Mishna condemned such action!

Then Mary took about a pint of pure nard, an expensive perfume; she poured it on Jesus' feet and wiped his feet with her hair. And the house was filled with the fragrance of the perfume. (John 12:3)


As she stood behind him at his feet weeping, she began to wet his feet with her tears. Then she wiped them with her hair, kissed them and poured perfume on them.
(Luke 7:38)

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From above verses we read Jesus had his feet perfumed and washed by a prostitute, which was clearly against the tradition of a Practicing Jew. I've already written about this topic found in my blog http://mustafa-apologist.blogspot.co.uk/2016/11/very-unsual.html

Here I want to show how this was highly unorthodox according to the Jewish oral law. If you read the Mishna you'll find certain rules and regulation on what appropriate actions should be taken with a man and woman whom there is no relation with.

There's an entire chapter with guidelines on what type of actions are forbidden for men towards women, whom they are not married to. Let's read from the Mishna how Jesus having his feet washed and perfumed by a woman was wrong according to the written oral inspired law.

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Mishna Issurei Biah - Chapter Twenty One


It is forbidden for a man to have any woman - whether a minor or an adult, whether a servant or a freed woman - perform personal tasks for him, lest he come to lewd thoughts.
Which tasks are referred to? Washing his face, his hands, or his feet,10 spreading his bed in his presence,11 and pouring him a cup. For these tasks are performed for a man only by his wife.12
[A man] should not send greetings to a woman at all, not even via a messenger.13
(Issurei Biah - Chapter Twenty One verse 5) This applies even if the woman does not actually touch him [Shulchan Aruch (Even HaEzer 21:5)].

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This raises a serious question, that Jesus of the bible condemned the Jews for following the oral laws (Matthew 23), maybe because it applied on him and he wanted an escape route? Had Jesus known the orthodox Jewish principles and guidelines towards (non mehram) I.e one whom is not your immediate family rather a strange man or woman, he would have abstained the woman from perfuming and touching his feet. No  wonder the Jews had a problem with his behaviour on delicates issues such as breaking the law of the Torah!

Christian polygamy dilemma!

Did Korede say can you provide ONE single verse where God COMMANDS men to MARRY more then one wife in the bible ????

Ok Korede I'll show you 2 no 3 verses lol 

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If a man has two wives-one beloved and the other despised-and they bear him sons, the beloved one and the despised one, and the firstborn son is from the despised one.
(Deuteronomy 21:15 Masoretic Torah)


If a man have two wives, one beloved, and another hated, and they have born him children, [both] the beloved and the hated; and [if] the firstborn son be hers that was hated: (Deuteronomy 21:15 Samaritan Torah)


And if a man have two wives, the one loved and the other hated, and both the loved and the hated should have born him children, and the son of the hated should be first-born; (Deuteronomy 21:15 Septuagint Torah) 


If a man have two wives, one beloved, and the other hated, and they have had children by him, and the son of the hated be the firstborn, 
(Deuteronomy 21:15 Latin vulgate Torah)

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If he marries another woman, he must not deprive the first one of her food, clothing and marital rights. (Exodus 21:10 Masoretic Torah)


And if he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish. (Exodus 21:10 Samaritan Torah)


And if he take another to himself, he shall not deprive her of necessaries and her apparel, and her companionship with him. (Exodus 21:10 Septuagint Torah)


And if he take another wife for him, he shall provide her a marriage, and raiment, neither shall he refuse the price of her chastity. (Exodus 21:10 Latin vulgate Torah) 

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So here we have EXPLICIT statement from Yahweh that if a Man marries another women what he should do, isn't Yahweh COMMANDING HERE !! Please show us where Yahweh condemned taking a second wife?... Below I will show how Yahweh is responsible for taking other peoples wives and giving them to David ! I would also like to show you early manuscripts which tells us something very interesting about what Jesus said regarding marrige!

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And I gave thee thy master's house, and thy master's wives into thy bosom, and gave thee the house of Israel and of Judah; and if that had been too little, I would moreover have given unto thee such and such things." 
(2 Samuel 12:8 Masoretic Tanack)

The context of the verse is that of God, speaking through a prophet (Nathan), calling out David for David's sin of taking another man's wife (Bathsheba, wife of Uriah the Hittite), which is adultery indeed, and for setting up the death of Uriah the Hittite to try to hide David's sin.

Also, at the point in time of this situation, David had already been married to at least seven known-named wives. (1_Samuel 18:27, 25:42-43, 2_Samuel 3:2-5.)

But, in this verse 12 (above), God was not condemning David for all his wives! In fact, this verse 12 shows God Himself actually saying that HE was the One Who had GIVEN David His wives.

If God was against David's polygamy, He certainly would not have said that He had GIVEN David his wives.

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Early manuscripts tell us something that will shock you !

Divorce 

One Christian doctrine which varies a lot from one manuscript to the next is teaching about divorce.
The early manuscripts have some twenty different sayings about divorce. I list just a few of them. All of them are different versions of the same passage :- Matthew 19:9 They give different teachings about whether a man can remarry or whether a man can marry a divorced woman.
  • Codex Sinaiticus, Codex Ephraemi, Codex Regius Whoever divorces his wife, except for fornication, and marries another commits adultery.
  • Codex Purpureus Petropolitanus Whoever divorces his wife , except for fornication, makes her an adulteress and the person marrying a divorced woman commits adulteryHere there is no prohibition on a man remarrying, but there is a new prohibition about marrying a divorced woman.
  • Freer Gospels, Koridethi Codex Whoever divorces his wife , except for fornication, and marries another commits adultery and the person marrying a divorced woman commits adulteryBoth prohibitions have been combined
  • Codex Ephraemi Rescriptus (Original Version) Whoever divorces his wife , except for fornication, and marries another makes her an adulteress and the person marrying a divorced woman commits adulteryThe prohibitions on a divorced man remarrying has been removed , but the part saying 'makes her an adulteress' has been added.
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Can you see how the early manuscripts tell us that marrying another women is permissible providing she's not a divorced women, notice how scribes made the changes throughout time, now that's what I call tampering.. Maybe Korede should delete his post since the bible verses exposed him!

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