(3) Now the man Moses was very meek . . . —These words have been urged by some as an argument against the Mosaic authorship of the Pentateuch generally, or of the Book of Numbers in particular, but whether they may or may not have been inserted by a later writer, this inference is altogether unfounded. It is possible that the writer of Deuteronomy 34:10may have inserted these words in this place
Quest. 1. Did it become Moses thus to commend himself?
Answ. 1. The holy penmen of Scripture are not to be measured or censured by other profane writers, because they are guided by special instinct in every thing they write; and as they ofttimes publish their own and their near relations’ greatest faults, where it may be useful to the honour of God, and the edification of the church in after-ages; so it is not strange if for the same reasons sometimes they commend themselves, especially when they are forced to it by the insolence and contempt of their adversaries, which was Moses’s case here, in which case St. Paul also commends himself, 2 Corinthians 11:5, &c. 2 Corinthians 12:11,12; which they might the better do, because all their writings and carriage made it evident to all men that they did not this out of vain-glory, and that they were exalted above the affectation of men’s praises, and the dread of men’s reproaches.
Jamieson-fausset- brown bible commentary
But it is not improbable that, as this verse appears to be a parenthesis, it may have been inserted as a gloss by Ezra or some later prophet. Others, instead of "very meek," suggest "very afflicted," as the proper rendering.
The verse bears a difficulty on its very face, because it speaks of Moses in terms which could hardly have been used by Moses of himself.
And those are Christian biblical commentators not Muslims, doesn't this crumble the authenticity of the bible? One doesn't even know who wrote this section it's gets worse below we shall use the same passage but use another statement and see how it contradicts :
Bible says Moses was a very calm and humble man?
Now Moses was a very humble man, more humble than anyone else on the face of the earth. (Numbers 12:3)
Yet this humble and calm man committed horrific atrocities by the command of Yahweh.
Now kill all the boys. And kill every woman who has slept with a man, but save for yourselves every little girl who has never slept with a man. ( Number 31:17-18)
The question is was Jesus aware of the violence and terror caused by Moses which he did by command of Yahweh, or did he take Moses for being a humble and calm man? And if He knew his acts of terror did he condemn those actions or not if not why?
How can taking little infant girls be equal to being a humble calm then anyone on earth??