Tuesday, 27 September 2016

No historians recorded Jesus's alleged crucifixion?



This paper is a response to Korede a Christian apologist whos been Showing bogus historical evidence on the alleged crucifixion!


Korede your pathetic, we simply asked you to show us evidence of who witnessed the crucifixion outside the bible and you couldn't even show that!!

He's quotes 3 historians or 2 for the sake of academic arguments 
But what's funny about he's post is that NONE WITNESSED THE ALLEGED CRUCIFIXION...

Let's examine he's claim!

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Korede tells us Josephus (bin Matthias), wrote about the trial of Jesus in the presence of the council of Sanhedrin?? 

If that's the case where is your documented evidence?

In the nineteenth century an eminent scholar, Rabbi Wise, searched the records of Pilate’s court, still extant, for evidence of this trial. He found nothing. (Lloyd Graham, Deceptions and Myths of the Bible, p. 343)

Bear in mind all the historians Korede mentioned were born decades after the alleged crucifixtion, NOT A SINGLE WERE PRESENT WATCHING IT HAPPEN.

Josephus (bin Matthias) wrote a two volume BIOGRAPHY on the life of King Herod funny he never mentioned Herod ordering the massacre of children's like Matthew wrote in he's book matthew 2:16, Josephus and philos writing about Jesus was forged..


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Below is a list of historians who existed during the first century, where are there writings about Jesus?



Apollonius Persius                                    Appian Petronius
Arrian Phaedrus                                        Aulus Gellius Philo-Judaeus
Columella Phlegon                                    Damis Pliny the Elder
Dio Chrysostom Pliny the Younger             Dion Pruseus Plutarch
Epictetus Pompon Mela                             Favorinus Ptolemy
Florus Lucius Quintilian                             Hermogones Quintius Curtius
Josephus Seneca                                       Justus of Tiberius Silius Italicus
Juvenal Statius                                          Lucanus Suetonius
Lucian Tacitus                                           Lysias Theon of Smyran
Martial Valerius Flaccus                             Paterculus Valerius Maximus
Pausanias


According to Remsburg,

“Enough of the writings of the authors named in the foregoing list remains to form a library. Yet in this mass of Jewish and Pagan literature, aside from two forged passages in the works of a Jewish author, and two disputed passages in the works of Roman writers, there is to be found no mention of Jesus Christ.”

Nor, we may add, do any of these authors make note of the disciples or apostles; increasing the embarrassment from the silence of history concerning the foundation of Christianity. In other words, the only information of the life of Jesus comes from Christian believers.



There is no verification of a significant crucifixion in the writings of historians such as Philo, Tacitus, Pliny, Suetonius, Epictectus, Cluvius Rufus, Quintus, Curtis Rufus, Josephus, nor the Roman Consul, Publius Petronius. The crucifixion also was unknown to early Christians until as late as the Second Century. 

Forged version better then original?

Forged version better then original?



She said: "O my Lord! How shall I have a son when no man hath touched me?" He said: "Even so: Allah createth what He willeth: When He hath decreed a plan, He but saith to it, 'Be,' and it is! 
(Surah 3:47)

Let's read a similar passage from the gospels and compare the two :

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Mary asked the angel, "But how can this happen? I am a virgin." The angel replied, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the baby to be born will be holy, and he will be called the Son of God.
(Luke 1:34-35)


Now the birth of Jesus the Messiah happened in this way. When his mother Mary was engaged to Joseph, before they lived together she was discovered to be pregnant by the Holy Spirit. 
 (Matthew 1:18)

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Did you spot the difference ?? Notice how the Quran gives us a Perfect Understanding of the Birth and annunciation of Prophet Jesus Pbuh, how Mary Pbuh was a Virgin and no man touched her she was free from any charges of ill thoughts. When she asked how can she have a child when no man touched her, the reply was "When He hath decreed a plan, He but saith to it, 'Be,' and it is". There is absolutely nothing derogatory found nor can one think how did  Mary Pbuh become pregnant, because Allah Swt has explained it to us Perfectly.

Compare this with the biblical narrations? See how earthly and derogatory it sounds? Mary of the bible had the Holy Spirit come upon her? She was made pregnant by the Holy Spirit? One can easily get ill thoughts and wonder what did the Holy Ghost do to make her pregnant?

Now Christians claim the Quran had copied from the bible I.e forged it? And the ultimate Question is How can a forgery be far better then the original !!

Can a book which Christians claim had forged their book be far more better and superior in explaining the annunciation of the birth of Jesus Pbuh then their own God?

How absurd!

Did Jesus of the bible lie to the Jews?

Another lie???




"If I testify about myself, my testimony is not true.
(John 5:31)

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From the Above verse it seems pretty clear that Jesus is saying his testimony about himself is not true? Now why would Jesus being the chosen one utter such words? How would someone react to such a statement.. Especially the Jews ? And behold we have another passage found in the same book where the Jews challenge Jesus about what he said regrading his own testimony let's read the passage below :



The Pharisees challenged him, "Here you are, appearing as your own witness; your testimony is not valid." Jesus answered, "Even if I testify on my own behalf, my testimony is valid, for I know where I came from and where I am going. But you have no idea where I come from or where I am going. (John 8:13-14)

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So here we read the Jews challenged Jesus on he's saying about his own testimony, but Jesus openly switched his words by saying "if I testify on my own behalf, my testimony is valid," from what he said in John 5:31, we can see how it got switched in general terms we call this a lie... 

When the Jews corner him he lied his way out ? we know Jesus Pbuh would never lie, so now we have the authors to blame for such a horrendous false accusation 

But we know Christians believe that Jesus actually spoke all that which puts them into a dilemma SHAME!!

Where are the records?

Where are the records?




Caiaphas didn't say this on his own. As chief priest that year, he prophesied that Jesus would die for the Jewish nation. (John 11:51)

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Surely such a statement would of been recorded by the scribes of the high priest.? How comes it was only John who recorded this so called Prophecy and nobody else. Are you saying these scribes who followed Jesus day in day out, who were the learned men's of the region did not record the words of the High priest.  highly unlikely, This only tells us John made up such a utterance.

Next problem the trial with Sanhedrin, was the trial of Jesus documented? Surely a trial of such a scale should of been documented so where are the written evidence? We are talking about the High Priest the Pharisees the members of Sanhedrin Present for a trial of a man who apparently was charged for blasphemy yet not a shred of written documents from any Jewish scribes, but only Mark,Matthew, Luke and John recorded? How absurd. We are told an earthquake took place the skies darkened for hours the temple curtain torn apart, yet nothing was documented? No historian no Jewish scribe Pharisee no one recorded such an event?

This raises another question if Jesus was supposed have been crucified  before Passover according to John 18:28 & John 19:14-16, this means the High priest and Jewish learned men's were not serious about their tradition found in the Torah.. Think about it a religious festival (ritual ) which comes once a year on a specific day was not taken seriously by the Jewish leaders just so they can convict a man who was already preaching for years? Wouldn't it make more sense that the Jewish leaders would keep Jesus in custody until the Passover was complete so they can complete their normal preparation day errands and consume work after all is complete? Not like they took the trial more serious then religious work..

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The trial with Pontius Pilate 

Surely we should have loads of Evidence for this epic trial, not only were the Jews aware of such an event according to the gospels the Romans could never deny it that's if it really happened!!

In the nineteenth century an eminent scholar, Rabbi Wise, searched the records of Pilate’s court, still extant, for evidence of this trial. He found nothing. (Lloyd Graham, Deceptions and Myths of the Bible, p. 343)

Let's find out from Christians since they brag that we should ask them if we are in doubt?

If Luke was right the rest must be wrong?


If Luke was correct mark must of been wrong ?





Below we have two accounts from the same event, however they differ in the order of chronology : 

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Jesus healed Peter's mother-in-law and later John the Baptist was arrested
(Mark 1:29-31)  (Mark 6:17-18)


while in Luke we find the opposite ??


John the Baptist was arrested and later Jesus healed Peter's mother-in-law
(Luke 3:19-20)  (Luke 4:38-39)


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How do u rectify  this problem, its the same event but in opposite order. now here's where the problem GROWS EVEN BIGGER, Luke tells us he has an accurate account of what happened during the Ministry of Jesus ?



Many have undertaken to draw up an account of the things that have been fulfilled[a] among us, just as they were handed down to us by those who from the first were eyewitnesses and servants of the word. With this in mind, since I myself have carefully investigated everything from the beginning, I too decided to write an orderly account for you, most excellent Theophilus,  (Luke 1:1-3)

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Note from the above passage from Luke how he states MANY HAVE UNDERTAKEN TO DRAW UP AN ACCOUNT? Who are all those Many, when Mark and Matthew are his only predecessors according to the Cannon, Also notice how he HAS AN ORDERLY ACCOUNT OF THE EVENTS? Which means Marks order was WRONG and thats according to Luke if not how do u rectify this Discrepency 

Who are those Many, when Mark was the only one who apparently wrote before him? Unless there were many more if so where are their writings?

The jokes on you and your devil!

The jokes on you!


Now Christians often say Muslims have jinns with them as Hadith says so, since they don't have an understanding of the Hadith as they've never read the commentaries that should be added for a deeper understanding. I want make aware that Christian are indulging into a serious dilemma which will only expose them.

Firstly let's read the Hadith and clarify from commentary what the hadiths means :

It was narrated that ‘Abd-Allaah ibn Mas’ood said: The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “There is no one among you but a companion from among the jinn has been assigned to him.” They said, “Even you, O Messenger of Allaah?’ He said, “Even me, but Allaah helped me with him and he became Muslim (or: and I am safe from him), so he only enjoins me to do that which is good.” 
According to another report, “… There is assigned to him a companion from among the jinn and a companion from among the angels.” 
Narrated by Muslim, 2814 
Al-Nawawi included this in a chapter which he called: Baab Tahreesh al-Shaytaan wa Ba’thihi Saraayaahu li Fitnat il-Naas wa anna ma’a kulli insaanin Qareen (Chapter on the evil of the Shaytaan and his sending his troops to tempt the people, and the fact that there is a jinn-companion with every human being). 
Al-Nawawi said: 
Fa aslamu (and I am safe from him) or fa aslama (and he became Muslim). These are two well known versions. One means ‘and I am safe from his evil and his temptation.’ The other means that ‘the qareen became Muslim and became a believer, so he does not tell me to do anything but good’.  
There was some scholarly dispute as to the form of the word. Al-Khattaabi said that the word was Fa aslamu (and I am safe from him); al-Qaadi ‘Iyaad said that it was fa aslama (and he became Muslim), which is more correct, because the hadeeth says, ‘so he only enjoins me to do that which is good’.  
They also disputed as to the meaning of the word fa aslama.  Some said that it meant that he (the qareen) submitted and surrendered, as it was narrated elsewhere than in Saheeh Muslimfa astaslama [he gave up and surrendered]. It was also suggested that it means that he became a Muslim and a believer. The latter is the apparent meaning. Al-Qaadi said: Note that the ummah is unanimously agreed that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) was protected from the Shaytaan in physically, mentally and with regard what he said. This hadeeth contains a warning against the temptation of the qareen and his whispers and temptations. We know that he is with us so we should beware of him as much as possible. 
Sharh Muslim, 17/157, 158 

Now that we've clarified the Hadith with understanding let's turn to the biblical understanding 

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Surely there is not a righteous man on earth who does good and never sins
(Ecclesiastes 7:20)


The above passage is simple to understand right.. In other words There is not a single righteous person who can claim to say they are perfect and never sin or as the verse below states :
If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us.
(1 John 1:8)

Now that we've gathered that everyone is a sinner, and I'm sure there is no Christian on the planet who can say they never sinned, or that may will never sin since they'd accepted Jesus as Their saviĆ“ur ? Because human erros are bound to happen that's why we read from the gospels that Jesus taught his followers how to pray and ask for forgiveness 


Forgive us our sins, for we also forgive everyone who sins against us. And lead us not into temptation.'" (Luke 11:4)


It seems normal for a person to sin or else's why would Jesus teach his followers how to pray for forgiveness, which leads as to another dilemma.. If people are prone to sin as states from the Above passages, then one should also accept sinning is from the devil, thus there are Devils following people who are trying to make them sin in a regulate and us humans being more susceptible to those attack fall victims...

The one who does what is sinful is of the devil, because the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the devil's work. (1 John 3:8)

Think of it if the devil was capable to tempting Jesus himself according to the gospels what makes you Christians more superior to not fall into his traps? Let's read what Paul  and James had to say about sinful natures also notice how James explicitly says resist the devil so HE CAN FLEE FROM YOU indicating the devil is very close to the believer!


For the desires of the flesh are against the Spirit, and the desires of the Spirit are against the flesh, for these are opposed to each other, to keep you from doing the things you want to do. (Galatians 5:17)

Submit yourselves, then, to God. Resist the devil, and he will flee from you.
(James 4:7)

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Now the question goes bad to the Hadith though the understanding of a Christian, if we are prone to sin as stated and the devil keeps following us to make us sin wouldn't you agree every human would have some sort of a devil trying to deviate them? I believe we have sufficient evidence form the bible that the devil is always walking side by side with the believer to trap them!!!!!

When was Shem born? (Serious biblical problem)

When was Shem born? (Serious biblical problem)


the bible which is supposed to be Gods word, often makes Mathematical errors its a Normality which has become part of the bible.. I thought I'll share with u this  Mathematical blunder which Christians hide from.... When was Shem born?
Below I will list different passages and how u how the writers cocked up and it's all in the book of Genesis, a difference of few chapters.



We read in Genesis 


After Noah was 500 years old; he became the father of Shem, Ham and Japheth.
(Genesis 5:32)



Easy no maths needed Noah was 500 years old when he had 3 Son, let's carry on
Again in Genesis this time in chapter 7 we read 

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Noah was six hundred years old when the floodwaters came on the earth
(Genesis 7:6)


Once Again simple maths, since we are only adding extra 100 years but this time we have an extra additional information regarding the flood waters that came on earth!! 

Let's carry on to the erroneous passage and expose this numerical blunder. This time in Genesis 11

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This is the account of Shem. Two years after the flood, when Shem was 100 years old, he became the father of Arphaxad. (Genesis 11:10)


Here's were we have the  serious Numerical Error, if Noah had his 3 Sons when he was 500 years old that is (Shem, Ham and Japheth) and when the flood took over the earth he was 600 years old, how could Shem be 100 years old 2 years after the flood as It's stated in Genesis 11:10? Shouldn't that make Shem 102 years old? But on the other hand if we take Genesis 11:10 to be true then Shen would of been 98 years old this would make Genesis 5:32 wrong! Genesis 5:32 should of said Noah was 498 years old when he had his sons... SERIOUS PROBLEM 

Did the god of the bible really dictate this problematic issue, and you expect us to believe and accept such a god?? What's wrong with you people 

What did Ham do to Noah..?? Any idea...

What did Ham do to Noah..?? Any idea...




In the book of Genesis also known as the Torah we read  Ham his son saw his father Noah's nakedness. (Note according to Genesis 6:9, 7:1 Noah is a righteous man) 

Noah plants a vineyard, gets drunk, and lies around naked in his tent. His son, Ham, happens to see his father in this condition. When Noah sobers up and hears "what his young son had done unto him" (what did he do besides look at him?), he curses not Ham, who "saw the nakedness of his father," but Ham's son, Canaan. "A servant of servants shall he [Canaan] be unto his brethren." This is a typical case of biblical justice, and is one of many Bible passages that have been used to justify slavery. 9:20-25, however let's focus on the event which apparently took place....



Noah began to be a man of the soil, and he planted a vineyard.He drank of the wine and became drunk and lay uncovered in his tent. And Ham, the father of Canaan, saw the nakedness of his father and told his two brothers outside.Then Shem and Japheth took a garment, laid it on both their shoulders, and walked backward and covered the nakedness of their father. Their faces were turned backward, and they did not see their father’s nakedness. When Noah awoke from his wine and knew what his youngest son had done to him, he said,“Cursed be Canaan; a servant of servants shall he be to his brothers (Genesis 9:20-25)
"And Noah awoke from his wine, and knew what his younger son had done unto him."


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What did Ham do? Did he just look at his naked father or was there something more to it than that? 


The Talmud suggests that Ham may have sodomized Noah (Babylonian Talmud Sanhedrin 70a). In more recent times, some scholars have suggested that Ham may have had intercourse with his fathers wife Also Jewish sages have gone as far as saying ham castrated his father?

Rashis commentary 

saw his father’s nakedness: Some say that he castrated him, and some say that he sodomized him. — [from Sanh. 70a]

Cursed be Canaan: You have caused me to be incapable of begetting another fourth son (Gen. Rabbah , manuscripts, and early editions read: a fourth son) to serve me. Cursed be your fourth son, that he should minister to the children of these older ones [Shem and Japhet], upon whom the burden of serving me has been placed from now on (Gen. Rabbah 36:7). Now what did Ham see (what reason did he have) that he castrated him? He said to his brothers,“The first man [Adam] had two sons, and one killed the other so as to inherit the world, and our father has three sons, and he still desires a fourth son!” - [from Gen. Rabbah ibid. 5, 22:7]

Can you imagine the son committing such an evil act! Sodomising his father and possibly castrating him that's sick 

Did King David worship idols? Talmud says yes


Did King David worship idols? Talmud says yes



When David arrived at the summit, where people used to worship God, Hushai the Arkite was there to meet him, his robe torn and dust on his head.
(2 Samuel 15:32)


The head of the statue was made of pure gold, its chest and arms of silver, its belly and thighs of bronze, (Daniel 2:32)


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Talmudic commentary 

Rab Judah also said in Rab's name: David wished to worship idols, as it is written, And it came to pass, that when David was come to the head, where he worshipped God.

Now rosh ['head'] can only refer to idols, as it is written, This image's head was of fine gold.

(Tractate Sanhedrin Folio 107a)

From the  above commentary it's clear the Jewish rabbis understood the passages to refere that David worshiped idols.. Christians will have a serious problem disagreeing with this as they have no superior authority to challenge the oral law...


Also note the Talmud is the oral law and commentary for the Tanak according Jewish scholar Hyam Maccoby, in Judaism on Trial, quotes Rabbi Yehiel ben Joseph: "Further, without the Talmud, we would not be able to understand passages in the Bible...God has handed this authority to the sages and tradition is a necessity as well as scripture. The Sages also made enactments of their own...anyone who does not study the Talmud cannot understand Scripture."

From this Shall we conclude Jesus being the son (descendent) of David an idol worshiper? 




Was Joseph's dream fulfilled or unfulfilled ?

unfulfilled dream?

If what a prophet proclaims in the name of the Lord does not take place or come true, that is a message the Lord has not spoken. That prophet has spoken presumptuously. Do not be afraid of him” (Deuteronomy 18:22).

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The above statement is a false prophet verification test, let's see if this test qualifies or nullifies Joseph from the bible as a true prophet 

( Note this is only according to Biblical standards Muslims without a Doubt believe Joseph Pbuh as a Prophet of God) 


Then he had another dream, and he told it to his brothers. "Listen," he said, "I had another dream, and this time the sun and moon and eleven stars were bowing down to me." (Genesis 37:9)

It's pretty simple to understand the text Joseph had a dream where he saw his father mother and 11 brothers bowing down to him, his father in verse 10 confirms. So it only fair to say Joseph's dream is a PROPHERCY and his parents and siblings will make obeisance but the question is did they?


Now Joseph was the governor of the land, the person who sold grain to all its people. So when Joseph's brothers arrived, they bowed down to him with their faces to the ground. (Genesis 42:6)

He said, "Swear to me." So he swore to him. Then Israel bowed in worship at the head of the bed. (Genesis 47:31)

What happened to Rachel his mother?? Well bible says she passed away read Genesis 35, so now we can conclude biblical Joseph's the dream fulfilment never happened...

Does that make him false? 




Why is the entire passage missing from the Masoretic? (Why are you hiding it)

Why is the entire passage missing from the Masoretic? (Why are you hiding it) 

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The people remained at a distance, while Moses approached the thick darkness where God was. (Exodus 20:21 Masoretic Torah)




                                          ------------------- Compare to -------------------



And the people stood afar off, and Moses drew near unto the thick darkness where God [was].And the LORD said to Moses to say: I heard what people have said. All that they have spoken to you, they have spoken wisely. All that they have spoken let them put in their hearts so that they can keep my commandments in all their days, so that it would be good to them and to sons of them forever. Prophet I shall raise up to them from the midsts of their brothers, and I will place words of me into his mouth to speak to them all that I'm commanding them. And it becomes that the man who will not listen to his words that are spoken in my name, I shall require from him. But the prophet who will speak insolently in my name that which I have not instructed him to speak, or if he speaks in the name of other Gods, such prophet shall die. And if you will ask yourself in your heart how you shall know which word God has spoken and which he has not, see if the word spoken comes to pass. And if it shall not come to pass then this is not the word of the LORD, in insolence spoken the prophet. Not you shall listen to him. Go now back to your tent and I will speak to you regarding all commandments and ordinances and verdicts that you shall teach them, and what to do in the land that I give them for possession. (Exodus 20:21 Samaritan Torah)

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Why is this entire passage missing from the Masoretic version? And notice what the passage says, a "Prophet I shall raise up to them from the midsts of their brothers, and I will place words of me into his mouth to speak to them all that I'm commanding them. And it becomes that the man who will not listen to his words that are spoken in my name, I shall require from him. "

Let's study this carefully Prophet will be raised from the midst of their brothers.. This cannot be referring to a Jewish Prophet or else it would of been stated as Prophet will will raised from amongst you people, rather it says from the midst of THEIR BROTHERS. e.g :

Thou shalt not abhor an Edomite, for he is thy brother. (Deuteronomy 23:7.)

Notice how a Edomite are also brothers to the Israelites?  We know they were always fighting each other, how about the passage below inheritance to be given "TO OUR BROTHERS"

They approached Eleazar the priest and Joshua the son of Nun and the leaders and said, “The LORD commanded Moses to give us an inheritance along with our brothers.” So according to the mouth of the LORD he gave them an inheritance among the brothers of their father. (Joshua 17:4)

Thus it's understood that calling brothers doesn't mean from the same race or tribe rather Semitic brothers are also including such as the Arabs. We know Ishmael and Isaac were blood brothers and their descendants became the Semitic brothers Jews and Arabs.. Genesis 16:12 also Deuteronomy 18:18 has similar sayings :

Now ask yourself on whom does this statement Apply?... I'll let you all decide, Why is the entire passage missing from the Masoretic? (Why are you hiding it) 

Words of Allah Swt, given to Prophet Muhammed Pbuh :

Words in the Mouth

The prophecy proceeds further: ‘..And I will put my words into his mouth..’ What does it mean when it is said ‘I will put my words in your mouth’? You see, when I asked you (the Dominee) to open Exodus 20:21 Samaritan or Deuteronomy chapter 18, verse 18, at the beginning, and if I had asked you to read, and if you had read, would I be putting my words into your mouth? The Dominee answered: “No.” But, I continued: “If I were to teach you a language like Arabic, about which you have no knowledge, and if I asked you to read or repeat after me what I utter i.e. “Say: ‘He is Allah the One and Only; Allah, the eternal absolute; He begetteth not, nor is He begotten; and there is none like unto Him.’ (the Holy Quran 112:1-4) (I read them in Arabic). Would I not be putting these unheard words of a foreign tongue which you utter, into your mouth?” The Dominee agreed that it was indeed so. “In an identical manner”, I said: “The words of the Holy Quran, the Revelation vouchsafed by the Almighty God to Muhammad, were revealed. Quote by Sheikh Ahmed Deedat ( Note I the author of this paper added Exodus 20:21 as an addition to the text )

“And indeed, the Qur’an is the revelation of the Lord of the worlds. The Trustworthy Spirit [Angel Gabriel] has brought it down; Upon your heart, [O Muhammad] – that you may be of the warners.” [Chapter 26, verses 192-194]

Prophet Muhammad was tasked by Allah with memorising, disseminating and explaining the verses of the Qur’an as they were revealed from Allah to him through the Angel Gabriel. The eagerness of the Prophet to fulfil this task is mentioned in the Qur’an:

“Move not your tongue with it, [as it is being revealed O Muhammad], to hasten with recitation of the Qur’an. Indeed, upon Us is its collection [in your heart] and [to make possible] its recitation. So when We have recited it [through Gabriel], then follow its recitation. Then upon Us is its clarification [to you].” [Chapter 75, verses 16-19]

Here Allah instructed Prophet Muhammad that he should be patient and that there was no need for haste in memorising the verses, as they would be etched unerringly into his heart.

Also read Surah 96 the very First Revelation  which is READ, RECITE, PROCLAIM. Again putting words in the Mouth and Reciting Word for Word.

Did Moses Pbuh travel to Saudi Arabia according to the bible?

Did Moses (Pbuh) travel to Saudi Arabia (according to the bible)?


Now this is a very interesting subject, did Moses Pbuh travel to Saudi Arabia. The common answer from a Christian will be no he never traveled to Saudi Arabia Since the bible never tells us he did. What are the chances of any traces from the bible if such a travel was made does the bible give us an clues or hints or any information of Saudi Arabia or the sacred pilgrimage let's find out :

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We start off with the book of psalm in the 84th chapter where a  very Interesting statement is found we read david is praising the Lord with all praises alongside blessing it's creations amongst them are those who travel through the valley of baca ? And Interestingly enough baca is the original name for Makkah. 


Blessed is the man whose strength is in thee; in whose heart are the ways of them

Who passing through the valley of Baca make it a well; the rain also filleth the pools.
(Psalm 84:5-6)

One wonders what's so special of the valley of baca that he or she is blessed, unless the place itself is sacred.

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Another interesting information regarding the sacred pilgrimage is found in the book of Ezekiel, in fact the many chapters of Ezekiel's books speaks of the sacred mosque and pilgrimage. Let's read a portion of  the chapter and the rest we shall leave it for you to complete.


In the Book of Ezekiel (Chapter 40-47) , He tells us about a journey had been done for him by the Lord (or an Angel) in his vision...from his description to this journey we can conclude the following points...:



40:2 In the visions of God brought he me into the land of Israel, and set me upon a very high mountain, by which was as the frame of a city on the south.


"God brought he me into the land of Israel, and set me upon a very high mountain, by which was as the frame of a city on the south."..

The City is in SOUTH to the Land of Israel, Where it's enclosed by Mountains...What is this City?...Without any doubt Mecca just lies in the south of Land of Israel and it's enclosed by Mountains..Yet..Further proofs are followed in his description to that place..!


Ezekiel also describes to us the shape of that place in Chapter 42..:

42:15 Now when he had made an end of measuring the inner house, he brought me forth toward the gate whose prospect is toward the east, and measured it round about.

42:16 He measured the east side with the measuring reed, five hundred reeds, with the measuring reed round about.

42:17 He measured the north side, five hundred reeds, with the measuring reed round about.

42:18 He measured the south side, five hundred reeds, with the measuring reed.

42:19 He turned about to the west side, and measured five hundred reeds with the measuring reed.

42:20 He measured it by the four sides: it had a wall round about, five hundred reeds long, and five hundred broad, to make a separation between the sanctuary and the profane place.

According to this shape, this place is foursquare in shape ..!

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The Sacred House: (Al Ka'aba):

41:4 So he measured the length thereof, twenty cubits; and the breadth, twenty cubits, before the temple: and he said unto me, This is the most holy place.

According to this SHAPE of the HOLY PLACE, it's also foursquare..and it's well known that Al Ka'aba is as well 4square building...Is there any other sacred house having the same shape in Christianity or Judaism?..!

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Now coming back to the original question did Moses Pbuh travel to Saudi Arabia and the answer is yes.. Shocking for many we find information from the bible and history that Moses Pbuh did go Arabia with the children of Isreal, let's start with the Torah (the Old Testament ) then moving on to the New Testament and then Jewish historical data:


On the third new moon after the people of Israel had gone out of the land of Egypt, on that day they came into the wilderness of Sinai. They set out from Rephidim and came into the wilderness of Sinai, and they encamped in the wilderness. There Israel encamped before the mountain, while Moses went up to God. The LORD called to him out of the mountain, saying, “Thus you shall say to the house of Jacob, and tell the people of Israel (Exodus 19:1-3)

The Exodus of Moses with the children's of Israel is widely known by all major religions. This mass Exodus to flee from the tyrant pharaoh is found in religious Scriptures and also  well documented in historical archives. Without diverting let's focus on the above passage where the children of Israel coming out the land of Egypt arrived at Sinai?  Now with a little geographical study one can say that Sinai falls in the peninsula of Egypt ! Not this is not what history or tradition tells us as we will find out.

Here's the interesting part according to Paul the founder Christianity and writers of many books of the New Testament tells us in one of his letters to Galatians that Sinai is in Arabia 
He writes: 








“For these are the two covenants: the one from Mount Sinai which gives birth to bondage, which is Hagar - for this Hagar is Mount Sinai in Arabia, and corresponds to Jerusalem which now is, and is in bondage with her children. 
(Galatians 4:24-25)



Notice from the above writing of Paul how he called mount Sinai Arabia? Not only did he call mount Sinai Arabia he also associates it with Hagar and who is Hagar she is the mother of Ishmael Pbuh who were based in Saudi Arabia.




Arabia in the bible is modern day Saudi Arabia .




  1. Arabia in the Bible is always, without exception, the land of Midian. (Modern Saudi Arabia). 
  2. Arabia is associated with Kedar. Kedar is called "men of the east" Jer 49:28.
  3. Kedar was the son of Ishmael, who intermarried with the Midianites and lived south east of the Dead Sea. "These are their genealogies: the firstborn of Ishmael was Nebaioth, then Kedar" 1 Chronicles 1:29
  4. Ishmael settled in Shur and the wilderness of Paran: Gen 16:12; 21:21; 25:18
  5. Ezek 27:21 clearly shows that Arabia meant Saudi Arabia: "Arabia and all the princes of Kedar". Kedar was 
  6. Isaiah describes Arabia as including Kedar (Ishmael's son): "The oracle about Arabia. In the thickets of Arabia you must spend the night, O caravans of Dedanites. ... all the splendor of Kedar will terminate" Isaiah 21:13, 16
  7. In describing the swath of land from Babylon (Hazor) to Saudi Arabia (Kedar) Jeremiah 49:28 tells Hazor (Babylon) to invade Kedar (Saudi Arabia) calling them "men of the east". "Concerning Kedar and the kingdoms of Hazor, which Nebuchadnezzar king of Babylon defeated. Thus says the Lord, "Arise, go up to Kedar And devastate the men of the east. " Jeremiah 49:28
  8. Therefore Arabia = Ishmaelites, Midianites, Kedarites, Wildernesses of Shur and Paran, Midian
  9. The Ishmaelites, Midianites, Kedarites never lived west of the Arabah valley in the Negev.

Commentary ----


  1. "For Sinai is a mountain in Arabia. It calls attention to the geographical position of Sinai, giving definiteness to our conception of the great mountain and silently reminding us that it was the home of Hagar's children. ... For, that Mount Sinai is in the land of Hagar's children, whether or not the mountain bore her name, reveals in clear light the appropriateness of Paul's allegory." (Commentary on Galatians, Joseph Agar Beet, 1885 AD, Gal 4:25, p135)


  1. "What is actually new in Paul's argument lies in the first clause. The manuscript tradition of the text shows the problems that early copyists and translators had with this argument. Paul's intention here is to equate Hagar with Mount Sinai in Arabia. How does he arrive at this? The reader is first reminded that Paul himself was in Arabia (cf. 1:17) and will therefore credit him with a certain local familiarity. Arabia is indicated both by the name Hagar as well as by the location of Mount Sinai. Hagar is, to be sure, an Egyptian according to Gen. 16:1, but the region that is later accorded to her son Ishmael and his offspring is to be found in Arabia (cf. Gen. 25:6, 18). There one can also find Hagar as the name of a locality (cf. 1 Chron. 5:10, 19-20; Ps. 83:6), and this name may be preserved today in the place named Chegra. In the vicinity of this modern city of Chegra, however, to which the Hagar/Ishmael traditions seem to be related, is also the possible location (according to the geographic concepts of the Old Testament) of Mount Sinai, on which Moses received the law. Not until around the fourth century C.E. was it located on the peninsula that is known to us as Sinai. The writers of "the five books of Moses" seem to identify the "reed sea" with the Gulf of Aqaba, not with the Red Sea, and to have imagined Mount Sinai in the mountains that one can find in today's atlases south of the city of Tabuk in extreme northwest Saudi Arabia, where the city of Chegra also lies. The only question is whether the mountains actually bore the name Hagar from that city. That, however, is what Paul seems to assert here, for that is where the logic of his argument seems to rest. Paul is apparently referring to information that he acquired during his stay in Arabia (cf. 1:17). After the rationale for equating Hagar with Mount Sinai, the allegorical explanation now goes further, saying that Hagar therefore corresponds to the present Jerusalem because-and here Paul harks back again to 4:1-7-the present Jerusalem is in slavery just as Hagar and her children were." (Galatians, A Continental Commentary, Luhrmann, Dieter, 1992 AD, Gal 4:25)

  1. ""one [covenant coming] from Mount Sinai..., that is Hagar; but Mount Sinai lies in Arabia, yet it corresponds to the present Jerusalem": This is the reading of the oldest Pauline manuscript. (P46) and it is supported by several others. Another well attested reading is: "Now Hagar means Mt. Sinai in Arabia." In either case, wishing to emphasize that the slavery the Law introduced was the condition of the rejected son of Abraham, Paul identifies Hagar with the Sinai pact and the "present Jerusalem." Verse 25a is a geographical detail explaining how Hagar, although connected with a holy place outside of the Promised Land, is yet equated with the "present Jerusalem." Geographically, Hagar represents a place in Arabia, but even so she stands for enslavement and so corresponds to Jerusalem. But why does Paul mention Arabia at all? possibly because Mt. Sinai is in Arabia, which is Ishmaelite territory: he thus associates the Sinai pact with the eponymous patriarch of Arabian tribes (see Gn 25:12-18; Ps 82:7). He thus suggests that the Law itself stems from a situation extrinsic to the promised Land and to the real descendants of Abraham. Paul's Jewish colleagues would not have been happy with this allegory. (The Jerome Biblical commentary, Brown, R. E., Fitzmyer, J. A., & Murphy, R. E. 1968 AD, Gal 4:25)

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Historians and their findings 


In Apostle Paul's time, "Arabia" covered a wide area that "included the Sinai Peninsula" as well as what we now call Saudi Arabia, according to Cambridge scholar Graham Davies.

Davies, Wilderness (1979) pp. 30, 99 n. 1, emphasis added. In Herodotus ca. 450 B.C., not only was the Sinai Peninsula considered PART OF ARABIA but, surprisingly, so was all of the eastern desert half of what WE now call EGYPT on the continent of AFRICA. In Greek and Roman Empire days, the bulk of the Sinai Peninsula was left to the Nabateans as "Arabia Petrea," until their conquest by the Romans in 106 A.D. The southern and central Sinai were then merged into the new Province of Arabia. Even in modern times, Wilhelm Gesenius listed both MT. SINAI and the Sinai Peninsula as PART OF "ARABIA," in his famous 1834 Hebrew Lexicon. (Herodotus II:8, 11, 158; Michael Avi-Yonah, "Sinai," Encycl. Judaica, vol. 14, p. 1595; Eckenstein, Hist. Sinai, p. 91; Davies, Wilderness, p. 30; Avraham Negev (ed.), The Archaeological Encyclopedia of the Holy Land [AEHL] (Thomas Nelson, Nashville, Tenn., 1986 rev.) pp. 65, 221-223, 276, 292, 351; Samuel P. Tregelles (transl.), Gesenius' Hebrew and Chaldee Lexicon (Baker, Grand Rapids, Mich., 1979 reprint [London, 1847, 1857]) p. 584 (Strong's no. 5514).


Josephus 

Josephus says that Mount Sinai was "the highest of all the mountains thereabout," yet Helena chose Mt. Musa at 7,497 feet when the highest mountain is nearby mountain Mt. Catherine at 8,625 feet. Mt. Al-Lawz in north Saudi Arabia is 8,464 feet. That is 100 feet higher than Mt. Musa. 

Abraham after this married Keturah, by whom six sons were born to him. ... Now, for all these sons and grandsons, Abraham contrived to settle them in colonies; and they took possession of Troglodytis, and the country of Arabia the Happy, as far as it reaches [north] to the Red Sea [Gulf of Aqaba]". (Josephus, Antiquities 1.238)

  1. When Moses had said thus, the multitude requited him with marks of respect; and chose twelve spies, of the most eminent men, one out of each tribe, who, passing over all the land of Canaan from the borders of Egypt, came to the city of Hamath, and to Mount Lebanon; and having learned the nature of the land and of its inhabitants, they came home, having spent forty days in the whole work. (Josephus, Antiquities 3.303)
  2. The lot of Simeon (inside Judah), which was the second, included that part of Idumea [Edom] which bordered upon Egypt and Arabia. (Josephus, Antiquities 5.82)
  3. This place is between Arabia and Judea, beyond Jordan, not far from the country of Heshbon. (Josephus, Antiquities 12.233)
  4. So when Jonathan was returned thence, he went into Arabia, and fought against the Nabateans (Josephus, Antiquities 13.179)
  5. Now Arabia is a country that borders upon Judea. (Josephus, Antiquities 14.15)
  6. She also petitioned Antony to give her Judea and Arabia: and in order thereto desired him to take these countries away from their present governors. (Josephus, Antiquities 15.92)

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Conclusion from biblical and historical understanding Moses Pbuh must have travelled to Saudi Arabia after all this  is a very scared place !

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