Saturday, 24 September 2016

Paul said Old Testament law is man made?

According to Paul the Laws of Old Testament  are man made not Yahweh's 
You must not eat their meat or touch their carcasses; they are unclean for you.
(Leviticus 11:8)

.You must not eat any fat or any blood.' (Leviticus 3:17)


"Do not handle! Do not taste! Do not touch!"? These rules, which have to do with things that are all destined to perish with use, are based on merely human commands and teachings. (Colossians 2:21-22)

Notice how Paul says commandments such as the ones found in Leviticus the law of Yahweh is suppose to be human Commands!

From where did Cain's wife arrive?

If Adam & Eve had Cain and Abel, where did Cain's wife come from?

It's a question that hasn't been addressed by our fellow Christians, they keep twisting it, some have tried to fix this problem but their attempts have only made it worse... This paper will analyse this mystery? One has to read from start to understand it, so Let's study this chronologically. All this is found in the Book of Genesis:

So we know from Genesis  Adam and Eve had two sons first Cain then Abel:

Adam made love to his wife Eve, and she became pregnant and gave birth to Cain. She said, "With the help of the LORD I have brought forth a man."Later she gave birth to his brother Abel. Now Abel kept flocks, and Cain worked the soil. (Genesis 4:1-2)


Cain kills Abel his brother:

Now Cain said to his brother Abel, "Let's go out to the field." While they were in the field, Cain attacked his brother Abel and killed him.
(Genesis 4:8)


Yahweh banishes cain and he goes gets a wife and builds a city:

So Cain went out from the LORD's presence and lived in the land of Nod, east of Eden. Cain made love to his wife, and she became pregnant and gave birth to Enoch. Cain was then building a city, and he named it after his son Enoch. (Genesis 4:16-17)


Adam and Eve have another Son called Seth who replaces Abel:

Adam made love to his wife again, and she gave birth to a son and named him Seth, saying, "God has granted me another child in place of Abel, since Cain killed him." (Genesis 4:25)


Adam has more children's after Seth was born:

After Seth was born, Adam lived 800 years and had other sons and daughters.(Genesis 5:4)


Conclusion :

Adam and Eve had Cain and Abel, 

Cain killed his brother Abel,

Cain was banished and marked

Cain went to another land and had a child from his WIFE,

Adam and Eve had another Child called Seth replacing  Abel,

Adam had more children's after Seth was born, (bear in mind before that Cain was married with a child,)



Paul tells us Adam was the first man on earth

So it is written: "The first man Adam became a living being"
(1 Corinthians 15:45)

What does commentary from Rashis tells us 

3. And Adam lived one hundred and thirty years, and he begot in his likeness after his image, and he named him Seth.  

one hundred and thirty years: Until then, he had separated from his wife. — [Tanchuma Buber, Bereishith 26].
So for 130 years he Adam had separated from his wife? Which clears the idea that that had children's before Seth was born?

Once again Christians have a lot of explaining to do...


Luke's Textual corruption !

Christian apologists admit Luke's text corruption!!

Luke's genealogy of Jesus contains an interesting error. Between Shem and Abraham, he is clearly following the genealogy in Genesis 11:10-26. There is one key exception. At one point, Luke adds a name not present in Genesis 11, namely Cainan. As we can read from the verses below:


the son of Jacob, the son of Isaac, the son of Abraham, the son of Terah, the son of Nahor, the son of Serug, the son of Reu, the son of Peleg, the son of Eber, the son of Shelah, the son of Cainan, the son of Arphaxad, the son of Shem, the son of Noah, the son of Lamech   (Luke 3:34-36)

Why does this occur? One explanation suggests itself: Luke was not using the original Hebrew Bible, but rather a Greek translation of it known as the Septuagint or LXX. And the Septuagint does contain Cainan's name (although see the Apologetics Press response, below).

In other words, by using the Septuagint's corrupt translation of the original genealogy in Genesis, Luke may have allowed an error to creep into into his own genealogy.



The Apologetics Press argues that, actually, mention of Cainan in the Septuagint was inserted after Luke's gospel was written, by over-zealous scribes eager to make the Septuagint concur with Luke.

If that's correct, then it's impossible that Luke's genealogy was corrupted by using the LXX as his source. We then have no obvious explanation as to where Luke got the name from. I suppose divine inspiration could be invoked.

Instead, The Apologetics Press suggests the presence of "Cainan" in Luke is itself a scribal error. Indeed, two important early manuscripts of Luke don't include the name, but the rest do, and so all modern Bibles contain it. The NET Bible's notes argue that the absence of "Cainan" in those two manuscripts of Luke may have been the result of scribes dropping it to be consistent with the original Hebrew.

1* (Luke used the Septuagint) The Hebrew didn't mention "Cainan", but the LXX did. Luke copied the LXX, introducing an error into his gospel. Someone altered Luke to agree with the Hebrew, but this version of Luke never became widespread.

2* (Luke made a mistake) Luke accidentally added Cainan into his genealogy, introducing an error into his gospel. Someone altered Luke to agree with the Hebrew, but this version of Luke never became widespread. Scribes then updated the LXX to agree with Luke, and this updated LXX became widespread.

3* (Corrupted Hebrew) The original Hebrew did indeed mention "Cainan", but the text was later corrupted. The LXX gives the original reading, and Luke is therefore correct. Someone altered Luke to agree with the corrupt Hebrew, but this version of Luke never became widespread. No correct Hebrew manuscript survived.

4* (Deliberate omission + inspired Luke) The Hebrew didn't mention "Cainan", and neither did the LXX. Luke - guided by inspiration - added "Cainan", who had been intentionally omitted in Genesis. Scribes then updated the LXX to agree with Luke, and this updated LXX became widespread. Someone altered Luke to agree with the Hebrew, but this version of Luke never became widespread.

5* (Multiple later alterations) The Hebrew didn't mention "Cainan", and neither did the LXX. Luke didn't mention "Cainan" either, but scribes copying Luke added "Cainan" by accident, and then other scribes updated the LXX to agree with the corrupted Luke. Both the corrupted Luke and the updated LXX became widespread.

Did the original LXX contain "Cainan"? Who is to take the blame for this error?
Mans handy work has proves the bible is not the word of god, or else how flies one explain this??? 


What a mess !

What a Mess!!!!

(The Nephilim (Giants) lived on earth prior to the Flood.)

The Nephilim were on the earth in those days, and also afterward, when the sons of God came in to the daughters of man and they bore children to them. These were the mighty men who were of old, the men of renown (Genesis 6:4)


(Only Noah and his family, and the animals on the Ark, survived the Flood.)
Every living thing on the face of the earth was wiped out; people and animals and the creatures that move along the ground and the birds were wiped from the earth. Only Noah was left, and those with him in the ark. (Genesis 7:23)

(Long after the Flood, the Nephilim (Giants) still lived.)

We saw the Nephilim there (the descendants of Anak come from the Nephilim). We seemed like grasshoppers in our own eyes, and we looked the same to them."
(Numbers 13:33)


let's sum up this mess, Genesis 6:4 tells us Nephilim (Giants) lived before the flood of Noah, 

Genesis 7:22 tells us the entire earth was flooded and not a single HUMAN OR ANIMAL LIVED EXCEPT NOAH AND THOSE IN THE ARK!

Numbers 13.33 tells us they saw Nephilim Giants during the time of Moses, which were supposed have been annihilated through the flood Genesis 7:23?

The question is how to do rectify this MESS! If all the people were drowned how did Nephilim (Giants) survive ?? Shall we conclude Yahweh gave wrong info to the authors?

What a SHAME!!

paul contradicts John

According to Paul Jesus isn't the only man who went to heaven!

Below we find TWO passages from the New Testament where john seems to lie to this readers by claiming Jesus was the only man who has ever gone into heaven and came back from heaven?


No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven the Son of Man. (John 3:13)

This is where Paul completely destroys johns concept of this heavenly figure Jesus 

I know a man in Christ who fourteen years ago was caught up to the third heaven. Whether it was in the body or out of the body I do not know—God knows. And I know that this man—whether in the body or apart from the body I do not know, but God knows— was caught up to paradise and heard inexpressible things, things that no one is permitted to tell. (2 Corinthians 12:2-4)


Poor john, if only he read the epistles of Paul he wouldn't of embarrassed himself, some unknown guy goes to heaven simple as that lol. this is another reason to believe John was unaware of Paul's writing  though Paul wrote much earlier then john. The two never had any link with each other..

This also bring to mind, the robber who Jesus promised will be in heaven with him?? Isn't he in heaven now... So this statement of no man has EVER GONE TO HEAVEN IS A LIE... 

just for the records Elijah  and Enoch according to the OT went to heaven much before the so called saviour of Christians did!  (2 kings 2:11) (Genesis 5:24)

Matthew made Jesus a pagan?

Matthew made jesus into a pagan from childhood.

So Joseph got up and took the Child and His mother while it was still night, and left for Egypt. 15He remained there until the death of Herod. This was to fulfill what had been spoken by the Lord through the prophet: "OUT OF EGYPT I CALLED MY SON."
(Matthew 2:15)

The above is a prophecy which Matthew claimed was fulfilled was taken from the OT book of Hosea! Let's read that fulfilled passage :

"When Israel was a child, I loved him, and out of Egypt I called my son.
(Hosea 11:1)


Seems like a straight forward prophecy, but if the NT author claims this is a true fulfilment of jesus then Hosea is telling us an epical story of what happened during that childhood of jesus. Let's carry on reading the next verse as to get more deep into this story :

But the more I called to him, the farther he moved from me, offering sacrifices to the images of Baal and burning incense to idols.
(Hosea 11:2)


Wait a sec?? If this is a prophecy of jesus then the immediate next verse tells us Jesus's family were sacrificing to Baalim? And it's only logical jesus being the child was part of the ritual..... 

Shall we conclude Matthew was wrong misquoting the passage or he was correct making jesus and his family sacrificing to false gods!! TAKE YOUR CHOICE either way your in trouble.



Even if we took the verse CALLED THEM.... It still applies to the parents of your so called saviôur... Since U claimed verse 1 is singular right? Then the parents of your so called saviôur cannot be included right that will make it plural lol.....

Shall we conclude that the parents took him as a baby to worship Baalim?


Big Crown

David wore a crown which weighed 125 pounds ??

And David took the crown of their king from off his head, and found it to weigh a talent of gold, and there were precious stones in it; and it was set upon David's head: and he brought also a great amount of spoil out of the city.
(1 chronicles 20:2)


According to  bible commentary a talent weighs 100 to 125 pounds?

 Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary

2. David took the crown of their king …, and found it to weigh a talent of gold—equal to one hundred twenty-five pounds. Some think that Malcom, rendered in our version "their king," should be taken as a proper name, Milcom or Molech, the Ammonite idol, which, of course, might bear a heavy weight. But, like many other state crowns of Eastern kings, the crown got at Rabbah was not worn on the head, but suspended by chains of gold above the throne.

Pulpits commentary tells us 124 pounds 

Ellicott's Commentary for English Readers

A talent of gold.—The Arabic Version says one hundred pounds. Modern scholars consider the “talent of gold” as about one hundred and thirty-one pounds troy. If the weight was anything like this, the crown was obviously more suited for the head of a big idol than of a man.

Can you imagine a man wearing 125 pounds of weight on his head? Wouldn't that break his neck, it will snap his neck instantly...Unless he was a giant lol


Did Jesus blaspheme bible says yes! 

anyone who blasphemes the name of the LORD is to be put to death. The entire assembly must stone them. Whether foreigner or native-born, when they blaspheme the Name they are to be put to death. (Leviticus 24:16)


It's pretty clear what the text is sayin! You blaspheme the name of God then you face the consequences, how would this apply to the Jesus of the bible, if he had committed such an act, or ultimately did he blaspheme against Yahweh? Infact there are couple of occasions found in the New Testament where Jesus seems to have blasphemed against Yahweh let's read those passages:

It's clear from the Old Testament that the children of Israel were taken for the sons of God  a metaphorical statement not literally THE SONS OF GOD rather SERVANT OF GOD Chosen People) surely this includes those who are sincere to God like Priests and Jewish rabbis leaders Torah followers Deuteronomy 32:6 etc...  However there is another affirmation of this in the New Testament where Jesus and the Jews has a dialogue where the Jews affirm they are the Children of God:

You are doing the works of your own father." "We are not illegitimate children," they protested. "The only Father we have is God himself." (John 8:41)

But how does Jesus respond back to them? 

You belong to your father, the devil, and you want to carry out your father's desires. He was a murderer from the beginning, not holding to the truth, for there is no truth in him. When he lies, he speaks his native language, for he is a liar and the father of lies.
(John 8:44)

Here we have a direct explicit statement from Jesus himself that the God Jews were serving actually is the DEVIL??? Now that's BLASPHEMY!! were the Jews serving Satan instead of Yahweh according to Jesus and they were not aware?


Second point 

Jesus Confirms the Old Testament is from satan!

We have an interesting passage found in the book of Matthew where Jesus preaches about oaths and what should and shouldn't be done, let's read the passage below to make it clearer 


33 “Again you have heard that it was said to those of old, ‘You shall not swear falsely, but shall perform to the Lord what you have sworn.’ 34 But I say to you, Do not take an oath at all, either by heaven, for it is the throne of God, 35 or by the earth, for it is his footstool, or by Jerusalem, for it is the city of the great King. 36 And do not take an oath by your head, for you cannot make one hair white or black. 37 Let what you say be simply ‘Yes’ or ‘No’; anything more than this comes from the evil one!
(Matthew 5:33-37)

Read carefully what the above passage says , SWEARING by anything even God is considered to be from the Evil one (Satan) !!! 
Now the Ultimate Golden Million Dollar Question is does the Old Testament tell us to SWEAR BY GOD? If so we shall consider it a saying from SATAN THE EVIL ONE... Bear in mind Jesus himself said whoever swears by god etc.. :


"You shall fear only the LORD your God; and you shall worship Him and swear by His name. (Deuteronomy 6:13)

But the king will rejoice in God; all who swear by God will glory in him, while the mouths of liars will be silenced. (Psalm 63:11)

You shall fear the LORD your God. You shall serve him and hold fast to him, and by his name you shall swear. (Deuteronomy 10:20)


There you have it a confirmation by Jesus that certain passages from the Old Testament are Satan Inspired!! 

Also Notice when Jesus was temped by Satan he quoted from the Old Testament a passages found in Deuteronomy yet dint add the statement swear by his name? Maybe because he knew it was an additional saying by Satan.. The evidence is within the text.

Jesus answered, "It is written: 'Worship the Lord your God and serve him only.'"
(Luke 4:8)

Now ask yourself this question was Jesus of the bible a blasphemer or not?

Serious Dilemma

(Christians fall into a serious dilemma )

The Quran says:  Say (O Muslims), 'We believe in God, and what has been revealed to thee, and what was revealed to Abraham, and Ishmael, and Isaac, and Jacob, and the tribes, and what was given to Moses, and Jesus, and the prophets from their Lord,- we will make no distinction between any of them,- and we are unto Him resigned. 3:84

Please Re-read it, and another similar verse of the Quran I quote below:
The Quran says:  We have sent thee inspiration, as We sent it to Noah and the Messengers after him: we sent inspiration to Abraham, Isma'il, Isaac, Jacoband the Tribes, to Jesus, Job, Jonah, Aaron, and Solomon, and to David We gave the Psalms. 4:163

Something is very significant in the above two verses.  Something that negates the entire argument of Christians!
They list names of the recipients of revelation from God, prior to the last prophet, SAW.

Do you see the names of Mark, Mathew, Luke, John or Paul?  They are the authors of most of the books of the New Testament in the bible. Are they not?

The New Testament is the words of Mark, Mathew, Luke, John and Paul, and not the words of Jesus.

Hundreds of gospels were in circulation in the first century AD.   Some of them are still around and can be read online: the gospel of James, the gospel of Thomas and the gospel of Barnabas.  Other gospels were by Peter, Mary Magdeline, and Mary's mother.

Among the gospels that have not survived might have been the gospel of Jesus.
Muslims are commanded to believe in what was given to Jesus.   What did the Christians do to that which was given to the prophet of God, Jesus?  None of the books in the New Testament is written by Jesus?  The bible says Jesus could write. John 8:8, Luke 4,16

So our Christian friends where is the gospel of Jesus Pbuh? When you find it let us know till them stop jumping up and down with hate please!!!

I am he?

Jesus said I am He (Christians are desperate now)

The woman said, "I know that Messiah" (called Christ) "is coming. When he comes, he will explain everything to us." (John 4:25)

The above verse from context is about the Samaritan women who has a discussion with Jesus, which starts off after a journey to Samaria Jesus was tired and asked the women for some water and its continues...  Now after a long chat coming to verse 25 we read that the women was aware of a messiah to arrive who will EXPLAIN EVERYTHING!  what did Jesus reply ?

Then Jesus declared, "I, the one speaking to you--I am He."
(John 4:26)

Here we can read Jesus explicitly declared He was the Messiah which no Muslim on The planet will reject, however point to be noted here is Jesus referred himself as HE in context to Messiah thus he meant Messiah... So when we read in the very same book of John Jesus calling himself He one can easily make the distinction that he's referring himself as the Messiah and this also also includes John 8:24

I told you that you would die in your sins; if you do not believe that I am he (Messiah), you will indeed die in your sins." (John 8:24)

This can also be verified by his very own disciple Peter, when Jesus asked him who he was he replied you are the Messiah!

"But what about you?" he asked. "Who do you say I am?" Peter answered, "You are the Messiah." (Mark 8:29)

Just for the records the Aramaic texts states The Living God, but I assure you this is not true as the Aramaic text does not say Living God rather it's been rendered by translators. I have seem the Aramic text and did not find Living God but only He so we can see the deceptive motive..


If a man cannot consider himself to be Good how does he Become God? Take for instance book of mark when the Jew calls him Good and Jesus replies he is not Good rather only God is Good, if he really was God this will be consider as he lied? And God doesn't lie

"Why do you call me good?" Jesus answered. "No one is good--except God alone.
(Mark 10:18)

So let's not get carried away with making a man into a God rather let God have his high status like he is due...

Which Torah is inspired?

All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness (1 Timothy 3:16)

Interesting verse which tells us all scriptures are God breathed? So Yahweh has a part in what is found in the entire bible... I find out if Yahweh speaks the same for all versions? If not how can we differentiate which is correct?


Which Torah is Correct??  

How Old was Methuselah when he became the father of Lamech?


When Methuselah had lived 187 years, he became the father of Lamech.
(Genesis 5:25 Masoretic Torah)

When Methuselah had lived 167 years, he became the father of Lamech.
(Genesis 5:25 Septuagint Torah) 

When Methuselah had lived 67 years, he became the father of Lamech.
(Genesis 5:25 Samaritan Torah)


How Old was Lamech when he had his son?


When Lamech had lived 182 years, he had a son.
(Genesis 5:28 Masoretic Torah)

When Lamech had lived 188 years, he had a son.
(Genesis 5:28 Septuagint Torah) 

When Lamech had lived 53 years, he had a son.
(Genesis 5:28 Samaritan Torah)


Altogether, Lamech lived a total of 777 years, and then he died.
(Genesis 5:31 Masoretic text)

Altogether, Lamech lived a total of 753 years, and then he died.
(Genesis 5:31 Septuagint Torah) 


Altogether, Lamech lived a total of 653 years, and then he died.
(Genesis 5:31 Samaritan text)


On what day did Yahweh finish his work, 6th or 7th?


On the seventh day God had finished the work he had been doing; so on the seventh day he rested from all his work.
(Genesis 2:2 Masoretic  Torah)

‘And God finished on the sixth day his works which he did and rested on the seventh day from all his works which he did.’
(Genesis 2:2 Septuagint Torah) 


How many came from Jacob?


And all the souls that came out of the loins of Jacob were seventy souls: for Joseph was in Egypt already.
(Exodus 1:5 Masoretic Torah)

But Joseph was in Egypt. And all the souls born of Jacob were seventy-five
(Exodus 1:5 Septuagint Torah) 

After this, Joseph sent for his father Jacob and his whole family, seventy-five in all.
(Acts 7:14 KJV)

From the above we read two discrepancies, from two different versions of the Torah and what's more fascinating The New Testament, specifically the books of Acts  agrees with the Septuagint Torah not Masoretic??


"My son, despise not the chastening of the Lord, nor faint when thou art rebuked of him:" (Proverbs 3:11 Septuagint Torah)  

"My son, despise not the chastening of the LORD; neither be weary of his correction:" (Proverbs 3:11 Masoretic Torah)

"And ye have forgotten the exhortation which speaketh unto you as unto children, My son, despise not thou the chastening of the Lord, nor faint when thou art rebuked of him:" (Hebrews 12:5 KJV)

From the above three passages notice how the Septuagint and Masoretic have different wordings? Also the book of Hebrews takes from the Septuagint Torah word for word!! 


This text talks of a 430-year period between the confirmation of a promise and the giving of the law.

Exodus 12:40

The Masoretic Text—‘Now the sojourn of the children of Israel, which they dwelt in Egypt, was 430 years.’40

The Septuagint—‘Now the sojourn of the children of Israel, which they dwelt in the land of Egypt and in the land of Canaan,41 was 430 years.’

The Samaritan Pentateuch—‘Now the sojourn of the children of Israel and their fathers, which they dwelt in the land of Canaan and in the land of Egypt, was 430 years.’


Which Torah is Correct?


And after he became the father of Terah, Nahor lived 119 years...
(Genesis 11:25 Masoretic Torah)

And Nachor lived after he had begotten Tharrha, 125 years..
(Genesis 11:25 Septuagint Torah)

And Nahor lived after he begat Terah 69 years, and begat sons and daughters.
(Genesis 11:25 Samaritan Torah)




Satan took hold!

Jesus and Satan !

Then the devil took him to the holy city and had him stand on the highest point of the temple. (Matthew 4:5)

Again, the devil took him to a very high mountain and showed him all the kingdoms of the world and their splendor. (Matthew 4:8)


Christians boast they cast out Devils in the name of Jesus? But when we read the so called biographies of Jesus we find that Satan not only tempted this man Jesus he also took him up a mountain and temple at request?... Interestingly Jesus obeyed Satan and followed him?

The Greek word used by παραλαμβάνω (paralambanó) which means took physically like taking something away from a person you physically have to handle it.. An since Jesus was tired and exhausted after 40 days and nights of fasting what energy is left in him to clime up a high mountain and temple! So Satan physically took him touched him, possibly dragged him 

Let's also Not Jesus never cast off Satan rather Satan left willingly!

In short Jesus could not cast Satan off Jesus was tempered by Satan, satan physically touched and took Jesus and Satan left willingly....


God gets blessed?

Yahweh gets blessed !

And David said to all the congregation, Now bless the LORD your God. And all the congregation blessed the LORD God of their fathers, and bowed down their heads, and worshipped the LORD, and the king. (1 chronicles 29:20)

Also the Arabic says احْمَدُوا Ahmed (praise) 

It's private and yours !

Yahweh wants your penis to say thanks to him!

If his loins have not blessed me, and if he were not warmed with the fleece of my sheep; (job 31:20)


Loins have not blessed him? I.e the private parts of a man this is no doubt since we have several other references where loin is the private part of a man for example :

All the souls that came with Jacob into Egypt, which came out of his loins, besides Jacob's sons' wives, all the souls were threescore and six; (Genesis 46:26)

We can read from the above text all those souls who came with Jacob came out of his LOINS!


If his loins have not blessed me - This is a personification by which the part of the body that had been clothed by the benevolence of Job, is supposed to speak and render him thanks.
If his loins have not blessed me,.... Which were girded and covered with garments he gave him; which, as often as he put on and girded his loins with, put him in mind of his generous benefactor, and this put him upon sending up an ejaculatory wish to heaven, that all happiness and blessedness might attend him, who had so comfortably clothed him; 


Let's get a little deeper with the word loins the Arabic word for loins found in the bible is Sulb صُلْبِهِ which no doubt means the male private... So the question is is Yahweh expecting the Penis Male private part Loins for praise him?

Do you really want a god like Yahweh ask yourself!

It's embarrassing quick change it !

It's to embarrassing quickly change it (Torah corruption)

The men turned away and went toward Sodom, but Abraham remained standing before the LORD. (Genesis 18:22)

Rabbi confirm alteration made on the story of Abraham, this shows how easy it was for scribes to alter and change texts easily,  Notice commentators are ok with this alteration, also shockingly we are told there are 18 accounts of scribal changes!!! 

The story goes like this  when Abraham was visited by the three angels and after they left the Lord Yahweh was standing in front of Abraham, this was to embarrassing as how can God stand in front of Abraham it should be vice versa, so as you guessed it they changed the text... Let's read this evidence from commentary :


Commentary rashis 

 and Abraham was still standing, etc.: But is it not so that he did not go to stand before Him, but the Holy One, blessed be He, came to him and said to him (above verse 20): “Because the cry of Sodom and Gomorrah has become great, etc.,” and it should have been written here: “and the Lord was still standing beside Abraham?” But this is a scribal emendation (Gen. Rabbah 49:7).

The Tikkun Soferim

The peshat reading suggested above goes further than just clearing up some awkwardness in the narrative; it also confirms an ancient tradition regarding the reading of the text (Gen. Rab. 49:7):
“[The angels] went to Sodom and Abraham remained standing before the Lord” – Rabbi Simon says: “This is a correction of the scribes (tikkun soferim), for the presence of God was waiting for Abraham.”[10]

According to Rabbi Simon’s statment, also cited by Rashi (ad loc.), verse 22 originally read “the Lord remained standing before Abraham.”

Rabbi Simon’s statement is part of a tradition about “scribal corrections” that exist in the biblical text. According to this tradition, there are up to eighteen biblical verses that underwent scribal correction (tikunay soferim).  These verses were “corrected” to remove any possible anthropomorphisms or disrespect towards God.[11] The potential disrespect in the “uncorrected” reading of verse 22 is that it appears that God is subservient to Abraham; therefore, our source tells us that the verse was modified by the scribes to read as it does now: Abraham remained standing before the Lord.
In the context of the peshat reading, the “uncorrected” verse makes perfect sense. God was addressed directly in verse 3 and resumes His speech in verses 13-14.  The 2 angels head off to Sodom in verse 16.  In verses 17-22 God contemplates and then begins discussing plans to destroy Sodom and Gomorrah with Abraham, while God was still standing in Abraham’s presence.  The “uncorrected” statement of God left standing before Abraham probably highlighted the solemnity of what was to follow (Abraham’s petition to save Sodom; Gen. 18:23-33.) As such, it no longer seems to be merely a repetition of verse 16. In addition, the “uncorrected” text continues with the notion of God’s presence remaining before Abraham  found throughout the narrative.

The reason the peshat reading was overlooked for the traditional reading seems clear – a desire to avoid anthropomorphic imagery about God which would be considered problematic by later authorities. Nevertheless, a literary analysis focused on peshat offers a straightforward way to read a familiar narrative and sheds new light on an ancient tradition regarding the history of the text.

[10]  “וילכו סדומה ואברהם עודנו עומד לפני ה'” –  א”ר סימון תיקון סופרים הוא זה שהשכינה היתה ממתנת לאברהם.
[11] For a full discussion, see my A Journey Through Torah, Urim, 2012, pp. 46-54 and p. 66, note 10 and references therein.


What a shame truly this is a blow on those who believe the bible is free from corruption again one has to go back to Jeremiah 

How can you say we are wise and have the Torah when the scribes have tampered with it (Jeremiah 8:8)

Were they all Angels?

Were they really Angels?

When we read the original Greek text we find that John the Baptist and he's disciples as well as the disciples of Jesus were referred as Angels..


John the Baptist is referred an angel?

This is the one about whom it is written: "'I will send my messenger (Angel) (ἀγγελῶν angelōnahead of you, who will prepare your way before you.' (Matthew 11:10)

as it is written in Isaiah the prophet: "I will send my messenger (Angel) (ἀγγελῶν angelōnhead of you, who will prepare your way" (Mark 1:2)

John the Baptists disciples are referred  as angels?

 After John's messengers (Angels) (ἀγγελῶν angelōn left, Jesus began to speak to the crowd about John: "What did you go out into the wilderness to see? A reed swayed by the wind? (Luke 7:24)

Jesus's disciples were referred as angels?

And he sent messengers (Angels) (ἀγγελῶν angelōn )on ahead, who went into a Samaritan village to get things ready for him; (Luke 9:52)


Does it mean they were all angels? NOOO!! Same way when Jesus was called Lord doesn't make him divine as lord was a title many had before..

Prophet Abraham:

"Therefore Sarah laughed within herself, saying, After I am waxed old shall I have pleasure, my lord (Abraham) being old also?" (Genesis 18:12)


"And he commanded them, saying, Thus shall ye speak unto my lord Esau; Thy servant Jacob saith thus, I have sojourned with Laban, and stayed there until now:"
(Genesis 32:4)


"And we said unto my lord, We have a father, an old man, and a child of his old age, a little one; and his brother is dead, and he alone is left of his mother, and his father loveth him." (Genesis 44:20)


"And fell at his feet, and said, Upon me, my lord, [upon] me [let this] iniquity [be]: and let thine handmaid, I pray thee, speak in thine audience, and hear the words of thine handmaid." (1 Samuel 25:24)



Does God have restrictions?

Literal Statement or Metaphorical?

Our God is in heaven; he does whatever pleases him.
(Psalm 115:3)

The LORD does whatever pleases him, in the heavens and on the earth, in the seas and all their depths. (Psalm 135:6)


From the above passage it seems pretty much clear God has Power over All things, and does what he pleases, But should one take those passages as literal or metaphoric? U may ask why would we take this as metaphoric?? Well the simple answer is if The God of the bible is so Powerful and does whatever he wants, then Why Couldn't he abolish the original sin! Whereas making an innocent man suffer, torturing and humiliating him for a sin which has nothing to do with him! ? Does that even make sense.... Now many Christians will say NOO the PROPHERCY had to be fulfilled and the sinless had to suffer for all of us ? Well that nufflies the above passages that God does whatever he wants?? This tells us God has restrictions and is not able to forgive the original sins without making making another suffer... 

Ask any Christian was God able to forgive Adam and eves sins without a sacrifice (i.e blood) watch how they stutter to answer you back... It's a simple question which deserves a yes or no...  THUS BIBLE GOD IS NOT ABLE TO EVEN FORGIVE THE ORGINAL SIN, JUST LIKE THAT HOW COULD HE EVEN DO WHAT HE WANTS!

Hows that even Possible

Serpant or Satan?

And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the Devil, and Satan, which deceiveth the whole world: he was cast out into the...