Saturday, 31 December 2016

The New Testament was not inspired by the Holy Ghost !.

The bible clearly shows  its inconsistency It's full of blunders and errancy. Below I'll prove to you the so called gospels were not inspired by the Holy Spirit, it's a man made product for the ignorants. Let's expose the lies Christians make on how their bible is Inspired, a claim which only backfires on them!


but whoever blasphemes against the Holy Spirit will never be forgiven; they are guilty of an eternal sin." (Mark  3:29)

In short you say something bad, vulgar about the Holy Spirit then your In trouble right. Well what if the Holy Spirit  is lying himself what then?? Does the Holy Spirit contradict itself,  LETS FIND OUT?

And they all forsook him, and fled(Mark 14:50)

In other words the followers of jesus all forsook him deserted him like cowards. So how do we know who witnessed Jesus's trial If all the disciples fled Ahhhhnh yes the Holy Spirit inspired the writers right???


Let's read how the Holy Spirit contradicts itself making it a lier Which only means that its cannot be trusted and only deceived the writers:

Did Jesus Speak at His Hearing Before Pilate?

Meanwhile Jesus stood before the governor, and the governor asked him, "Are you the king of the Jews?" "Yes, it is as you say," Jesus replied. When he was accused by the chief priests and the elders, he gave no answer. Then Pilate asked him, "Don’t you hear the testimony they are bringing against you?" But Jesus made no reply, not even to a single charge— to the great amazement of the governor. 
(Matthew 27:11)

In Matthew gospelJesus doesn’t answer to the charges made against him  But according to John he does?

"You are a king, then!" said Pilate. Jesus answered, "You are right in saying I am a king. In fact, for this reason I was born, and for this I came into the world, to testify to the truth. Everyone on the side of truth listens to me."(John 18:37)

So no we have a major problem the verses above show us the Holy Spirit not only gave the writers false info he's also  deceiving thousands of Christians 

(No wonder Paul wasn't aware if he had the Holy Spirit )

In my judgment, she is happier if she stays as she is--and I think that I too have the Spirit of God. (1 Corinthians 7:40)


Christians fall into a serious dilemma since they claim to be inspired by the very same Holy Ghost. This also shows what kind of a mess the bible is very unreliable.

What were the names of the disciples?

Matthew 10:2 & Mark 3:16Luke 6:14
1 – Simon the Cananean1 – Simon called Peter
2 – Simon called Peter2 – Andrew his brother
3 – Andrew3 – James the son of Zabadee
4 – James son of Zabadee4 – John his brother
5 – John5 – Philip
6 – Philip6 – Bartholomew
7 – Bartholomew7 – Matthew the tax collector
8 – Matthew8 – Thomas
9 – Thomas9 – James the son of Alphaues
10 – James son of Alphaues10 – Simon the Zealot
11 – Labaous called Thadaues11 – Judas the son of James
12 – Judas the Escariot12 – Judas the Escario

It is stated in Matthew that Simon the Cananean was a disciple, whereas in Luke Simon the Zealot is mentioned. Also Matthew states Labaous called Thadaues to be a disciple, but Luke makes no mention of this name, rather Judas the son of James is stated instead.

Below the Talmud tells us there was only five disciples ?

Talmud Sanhedrin 43a  It is taught: Yeshu had five disciples - Matai, Nekai, Netzer, Buni, and Todah. 

Another biblical dilemma, also have you notice Luke and Mark are not mentioned as a disciple? 

Friday, 30 December 2016

Did a Roman soldier shed Jesus’ blood?

Answer: John 19:34 claims that “one of the soldiers pierced his [Jesus’] side with a spear, and immediately there came out blood and water.” According to John 19:33, the Roman soldiers did not break Jesus’ legs because he was already dead. Chronologically, John 19:33 established the time of the inflicting of the wound in Jesus’ side (John 19:34) as subsequent to his death. John’s sequence of events is contradicted in some manuscript versions of Matthew 27:49 which state, “And another took a spear and pierced his side, and there came out water and blood.” This addition to the verse places the time of the inflicting of the wound as prior to Jesus’ death. However, it is an interpolation unsupported by the best of the ancient New Testament manuscripts. Blood oozing from a wound inflicted after death does not qualify as the shedding of blood required of an atonement offering. The piercing of Jesus’ body by a spear did not cause his death. Jesus did not die as a result of blood loss (Matthew 27:46-50, Mark 15:34-37, Luke 23:46, John 19:28-30). Jesus’ blood was not shed by a Roman soldier’s spear, thrust into his side.
Biblically, sacrificial death could only occur through the shedding of blood exclusively (Leviticus 17:11). Jesus, death by crucifixion can not be considered a sacrificial death. His death may have been caused by either asphyxiation or by going into “shock brought on by the traumatic physical events of his last hours, before and after he was nailed to the cross.”4 In his case, shock would not have been brought on solely by blood loss. The Gospels indicate Jesus’ blood was not shed to a degree that would make blood loss from the body the exclusive cause of death. Death solely by blood loss is the only biblical cause acceptable for an animal’s sacrificial death. 
The Law is considered by the New Testament to have been completely fulfilled by Jesus (Matthew 5:17-18). Complete fulfillment could only occur with the moment of Jesus’ death (John 19:30). That death is considered the culmination of the Law (Romans 10:4; Galatians 3:24-25; Ephesians 1:7; Hebrews 10:12, 14). Everything occurring to Jesus prior to that moment would have had to be under the Law. Yet, neither the physical condition (blemished), the age (over thirty years of age), the date (Nisan 15), the location (outside Jerusalem and its Temple), the executioners (Romans), the method (crucifixion), nor the cause of Jesus’ death (either asphyxiation or shock), is in accordance with that prescribed by the Scriptures for the sacrificing of a paschal lamb. Therefore, the Law was not fulfilled in Jesus. The evidence shows that he could not be equated with the paschal lamb.
This is sufficient to prove that Jesus did not shed his blood for the sins of mankind, thus Christians are in a dilemma 

How many Christians are there that can prove their love by giving up their life?

You all say Iraqis christians are being persecuted and many others from all over the world and you have the Noon arabic alphabet display on your whatsapp and facebook pic, Well prove your love and go save them giving up your life!! That's exactly what your jesus said :


We know what real love is because Jesus gave up his life for us. So we also ought to give up our lives for our brothers and sisters.
(1 john 3:16)

Greater love has no one than this: to lay down one's life for one's friends.


Wednesday, 28 December 2016

The Ascension of Jesus later added in the gospels so where did he go?

Christians brag Jesus is in heaven, not Muslim but Christians they go as far as saying where is your Prophet or all the other prophets Pbut, and where's Jesus... The same tape is always played by them.. Let's analyse what the gospels really say


After the Lord Jesus had spoken to them, he was taken up into heaven and he sat at the right hand of God.(Mark 16:19)

While he was blessing them, he left them and was taken up into heaven.
(Luke 24:51)


Biblical Scholars commentary 


The ascension of Jesus up to Heaven does not actually appear in the original forms of any of the gospels. It was not until 200 years after the supposed event took place that the ascension was added to later copies of Mark and Luke. Mark originally ends with the discovery of an empty tomb. Mathew and John remain to have no mention of the ascension into heaven.

Mark 16:9-20 where Jesus ascends bodily to heaven is not in the earlier scriptures but rather was added later. None of the earliest scriptures that we have such as the Alexandrian Unical Mss, Vaticanus, and Sinaiticus have versus 9-20, they all just end at 16:8. Also early Christian writers noted that the ascension was not in the earliest manuscripts. Jerome and Eusebius both state that the best manuscripts available to them did not contain the extended ending. Also there are significant linguistic and stylistic differences between 9-20 and the rest of Mark. As noted on page 103 of "An Introduction to the New Testament" by new testament scholar Douglas J. Moo, the longer ending also contains several non-Markan words and expressions.

"and carried up into heaven" has been omitted by the RSV marg. (1946 Edition omits the words in the text), Ne, GN marg., NASV, NEB. Hills (3) p 123, (38) p 70, states that the words are omitted by Aleph, D, the Old Latin version (i.e. 5 copies-see Burgon, above) and the Sinaitic Syriac manuscript. Ruckman (2) p 96, (54) p 39, states that the words are contained by Papyrus 75, A, B. C, E, F, G, Theta and the vast majority of manuscripts, the Old Latin, the Vulgate, the Old Syriac (i.e. Peshitta) and Tatian's Diatessaron (180 AD).

In the 1952 RSV Mark 16 ends at verse 8 and the rest is relegated in small print to a footnote (more on this later). Similarly, in the commentary on the verses of Luke 24, we are told in the footnotes of the NRSV Bible "Other ancient authorities lack "and was carried up into heaven'" and "Other ancient authorities lack 'and worshipped him'". Thus, we see that the verse of Luke in its original form only said:

"While he blessed them, he parted from them. And they returned to Jerusalem with great joy."

It took centuries of "inspired correction" to give us Luke 24:51-52 in their current form.


From the above scholarly papers, it's agreed the ascension is not found in the earliest manuscripts, which tells us the authors were not aware of Jesus ascending to heaven or being taken up? SO WHAT REALLY HAPPENED?  

seems like Christians  are not aware of there own scriptures and they start jumping around on ours.. I hope Christians stop asking questions about where is your Prophet or any Prophets Pbut now, since they themselves have to answer where did their Jesus go according to the gospels missing episode..


In the gospel, Luke recounts the ascension of Jesus on Easter Sunday night, thereby closely associating it with the resurrection.

BUT, in Acts 1:3, 9-11; 13:31 he historicizes the ascension by speaking of a forty-day period between the resurrection and the ascension. The Western text omits some phrases in Luke 24:51, 52 perhaps to avoid any chronological conflict with Acts 1 about the time of the ascension.

Yahweh lied to Moses about his name?

Interestingly we find a passage in the Torah where YAHWEH IS CAUGHT LYING TO MOSES, YES LYING !!!!!!  Don't believe me the evidence is below where yahweh tells moses that  Abraham, isaac and Jacob were unaware of the name Yahweh, however after reading the books first book of the pentateuch we find they were aware of the name yahweh and those before them!


I appeared to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob as El-Shaddai--'God Almighty'--but I did not reveal my name, Yahweh, to them.
(Exodus 6:3)


From there he moved on to the hill country east of Bethel and pitched his tent, with Bethel on the west and Ai on the east. He built an altar to Yahweh there, and he called on the name of Yahweh. (Genesis 12;8)

He also said to him, "I am the LORD, (Yahweh) who brought you out of Ur of the Chaldeans to give you this land to take possession of it." (Genesis 15:7)

Abraham named the place Yahweh-Yireh (which means "the LORD will provide"). To this day, people still use that name as a proverb: "On the mountain of the LORD it will be provided." (Genesis 22:14

So he built an altar there, called on the name of Yahweh, and pitched his tent there. Isaac's slaves also dug a well there. ( Genesis 26:25)

Adam made love to his wife Eve, and she became pregnant and gave birth to Cain. She said, "With the help of the LORD (Yahweh) I have brought forth a man."
(Genesis 4:1)

Seth also had a son, and he named him Enosh. At that time people began to call on the name of the LORD. (Yahweh). (Genesis 4:26)


Now that's what you call the master of liars... The very god who lied to his messenger how could u trust such a god to be true to you? Note all the above passages say Yahweh in the hebrew text and not Elohim or Eli. the golden question is why would yahweh lie and what gain does he get from it?

Tuesday, 27 December 2016

Messiah not found in the Old Testament...

Why don't the Jews believe in Jesus as the Messiah? Since the Old Testament (Tanach) does not mention of a messiah getting crucified, The Jewish authorities will not believe in Messiah, and thus they cannot see Him in the Scriptures they study. Listen to how Paul explains the “blindness of the Jews”:
12 Therefore, since we have such a hope, we behave with great boldness, 13 and not like Moses who used to put a veil over his face to keep the Israelites from staring at the end of the glory that was fading away. 14 But their minds were closed. For to this very day, the same veil remains when they hear the old covenant read. It has not been removed because only in Christ is it taken away. 15 But until this very day whenever Moses is read, a veil lies over their minds; 16 but whenever anyone turns to the Lord, the veil is removed. 17 Now the Lord is the Spirit, and where the Spirit of the Lord is present, there is freedom. 18 And we all, with unveiled faces reflecting the glory of the Lord, are being transformed into the same image from one degree of glory to another, which is from the Lord, who is the Spirit (2 Corinthians 3:12-18).

Did you notice how Paul testifies the Jews had not found the Messiah in their bible! This isn't something new since the gospels even tell us that the Jews were not aware that the Son of man I.e Jesus was going to leave?
The crowd spoke up, “We have heard from the Law that the Messiah will remain forever, so how can you say, ‘The Son of Man must be lifted up’? Who is this ‘Son of Man’?” (John 12:34)
Why would the Jews of that time speak the contrary to what Jesus was saying,Mir they had it all written in their bible?. Even Peter the Rock was not sure what was going on? He even rebuked Jesus for even suggesting that the messiah will be crucified.
Peter took him aside and began to rebuke him. "Never, Lord!" he said. "This shall never happen to you!" (Matthew 16:22)

Christians say Jesus was mentioned in the Old Testament? If that's the case why did they doubt? Surely they should of been waiting for such a fulfilment right! Why did Peter rebuke Jesus when Jesus apparently mentioned he has to suffer! Surely Peter should of accepted it right?? Unless he knew the messiah has to live and not get crucified!!!!  


It seems like even Christians are blind when it comes to the New Testament, here's another dilemma according Luke Jesus said the law of Moses & other prophets all spoke everything about him? 

Then he said to them, “These are my words that I spoke to you while I was still with you, that everything written about me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms must be fulfilled.” (Luke 24:44)

This is probably the reason the Jews reject anything and everything the New Testament says. Where is this passage found in the Law of Moses? The answer is nowhere!. Says a lot about the authenticity of both books. But the main point to focus on is why did the Jews not find Jesus in their bible? Either it was taken out which means its corrupted or it's never been in their book which shows the New Testament lied and made up saying to fit their agenda?

Monday, 26 December 2016

Who buried Jesus and why didn’t they testify as to the disposition of the body?

Answer: The evangelists, writing between forty and seventy years after the crucifixion, name Joseph of Arimathaea (John adds Nicodemus) as the person who buries Jesus. The disciples must have considered him with deep suspicion. Their attitude toward Joseph and those who assisted him is reflected in an antagonistic passage directed against the population of Jerusalem and its rulers sometime after the crucifixion: “For those who live in Jerusalem, and their rulers, recognizing neither him nor the utterances of the prophets which are read every Sabbath, fulfilled these by condemning him. And though they found no ground for putting him to death, they asked Pilate that he be executed. And when they had carried out all that was written concerning him, they took him down from the tree and laid him in a tomb” (Acts 13:27-29).

This passage, attributed to Paul, includes among those guilty for the execution anyone (that is, Joseph and Nicodemus) who took part in the recovery of the body. Thus, Paul emphasizes that Jesus was buried not by his followers but by his enemies, the very group who Paul accuses of arranging for his death: “And when they had carried out all that was written concerning him, they took him down from the tree and laid him in a tomb.”

There was no contact between the burial party and the followers of Jesus. The Gospel of John written many years after the accusation attributed to Paul was first made explains this lack of communication by claiming that Joseph of Arimathaea was “a disciple of Jesus, but a secret one, for fear of the Jews” (John 19:38). Nevertheless, Paul’s statement shows that the disciples did not consider Joseph and Nicodemus as fellow followers of Jesus, but as enemies, no different than the rest of the “rulers,” comprising the Sanhedrin. It is only later that the burial party was turned from enemies into supporters.It may be that neither Joseph nor Nicodemus spoke up concerning the whereabouts of the body because they were non-existent legendary additions to the crucifixion story. They may never have existed beyond the assertion that some of the “rulers” removed and buried the body of Jesus.

With time the negative role associated with their involvement in the execution was reversed and personal names and positive motivation were added to the story. If the actual burial party had spoken up concerning the location of Jesus’ remains those who still remained faithful to Jesus’ memory apparently refused to believe them.According to John’s account, the tomb in the garden was used because it was so close to the execution site and time before the Sabbath was growing short (John 19:42).

Luke’s account also gives a sense of urgency (Luke 23:54).There is no suggestion that the burial party intended the tomb to be the permanent resting-place of Jesus’ corpse. However, there is the implication that the tomb was used out of temporary necessity on account of the need for quick burial and the proximity of this particular tomb to the crucifixion site. On the basis of the hurried nature of the burial as found in the Gospel accounts, there is a strong possibility that Joseph’s intent was to remove the corpse to a permanent resting place as soon as possible. This is so even if the tomb belonged to him. If Jesus’ corpse were to be transferred to a different tomb, it would be done as soon as possible (that is, Saturday night), due to the quick onset of decomposition. One thing is certain, it suited Gospel tradition never to hear from Joseph or Nicodemus again.

Only 2 Questions

Rather then getting into hours of debate with these (lost people) Nasaras just ask them 2 simple Questions :


Question (1)

How can you prove that the Gospels you preach is 100% authentic and the word of God. What Evidence do you have that the gospels are genuinely true and Jesus actually spoke all those words.

In short I need you guys to prove and convince me, that the gospels are 100% word of God true to the very Text, and that they are truly inspired. I know Paul said all scriptures are Inspired, but when Paul allegedly said that, the very gospels you preach were not written down. He was referring to the Old Testament so don't try pulling that stunt..


Question (2)

How can you Christians prove that your Jesus was a true prophet and messiah? How can you prove from the Old Testament that your Jesus was not false? Where did Yahweh declare that Jesus was a true messiah ?

Show us the word messiah in the Torah referring to Jesus, and also show us the name Jesus in the Torah referring to messiah?

In short can any Christians prove that their Jesus is a true Messiah? Watch how They will struggle to answer you back. In fact they use the Quran as their defence which only shows that they have no other way out other then accepting Islamic sources. Saying that till now I haven't come across a single nasrani who has been able to answer without using Islam or on the  other hand turning to insults!

Try it !! 

Sunday, 25 December 2016

According to Luke Jesus was defiled when he was born and needed purification?

And when the time came for their purification according to the Law of Moses, they brought him up to Jerusalem to present him to the Lord
(Luke 2:22)


From the above passage we read after Mary gave birth to Jesus not only was she defiled, but both Joseph and Jesus were also defiled and needed purification!

Notice how it says THEIR PURIFICATION, the oldest and majority of the manuscripts have (AUTON) THEIR, where as the later Manuscripts says (AUTES) "HER" scribes were deliberately fixing this problem how can Jesus be defiled so they changed the words, from AUTON to AUTES...

So how is this purification done?? Well the answer is found in the book of leviticus let's read what it says :

6 “‘When the days of her purification for a son or daughter are over, she is to bring to the priest at the entrance to the tent of meeting a year-old lamb for a burnt offering and a young pigeon or a dove for a sin offering. 7 He shall offer them before the Lord to make atonement for her, and then she will be ceremonially clean from her flow of blood. (Leviticus 12:6-7)


Notice from the above passage that the mother has to take the child to the priest make a burnt offering of a lamb and pigeon which becomes a SIN OFFERING? Verses 7 tells us the priest will offer them before the LORD TO MAKE ATONEMENT FOR HER? The mother of Jesus needed to be purified alongside her son Jesus and needed to be ATONED for having Jesus??

Also we are told in Luke 2:22 Jesus was brought to Jerusalem to present him to the LORD? Wasn't Jesus lord himself according to Christians ???

Another blow on Christians for claiming Jesus was sinless and pure, even scribes had problem with this bit could not conceal the fact... This concludes Jesus was a man and not God like evil people attribute him to be...

How then can a mortal be righteous before God? How can one born of woman be pure? (Job 25:4)

(Biblical Circumcision dilemma)

In the Torah, God commands Abraham to undergo circumcision at age 99, as part of a covenant between Him and generations of Jews to come. "This is My covenant which you shall keep, between Me and you and thy descendants after thee, every male among you shall be circumcised. And ye shall be circumcised on the flesh of your foreskin, and it shall be a sign of the covenant between Me and you. And he that is eight days old shall be circumcised among you, every male throughout your generations" (Genesis 17:10-12).

The first person commanded to circumcise himself was Abraham, at the age of ninety-nine. G‑d told him (Genesis 17:7), “And I will establish a My covenant between Me and between you and between your seed after you throughout their generations as an everlasting covenant, to be to you for a G‑d and to your seed after you.” Demonstrating his submission to G‑d by marking the physical body with the sign of the covenant, Abraham revealed the intrinsic bond every Jew has with God.  (Reference :

And I will establish My covenant between Me and between you and between your seed after you throughout their generations as an everlasting covenant, to be to you for a God and to your seed after you.
And I will establish My covenant: And what is that covenant? To be to you for a God.
(Genesis 17:7 Rashis commentary)


Verse 7. - And I will establish my covenant between me and thee and thy seed after thee in their generations for an everlasting covenant, - literally, for a covenant of eternity (videGenesis 9:16) - to be a God unto thee, and to thy seed after thee. Literally, to be for Elohim; a formula comprehending all saving benefits; a clear indication of the spiritual character of the Abrahamic covenant (cf. Genesis 26:24Genesis 28:13Hebrews 11:16).


And I will establish my covenant between me and thee,.... Not only renew it, but confirm it by the following token of circumcision:


And I will establish my covenant between me and thee and thy seed after thee in their generations for an everlasting covenant


So from the above commentaries from Jews and Christians we've established that circumcision is a covenant made to God. According to Genesis, God told Abraham to circumcise himself, his household and his slaves as an everlasting covenant in their flesh. Those who were not circumcised were to be 'cut off' from their people (Genesis 17:10-14).

Now the New Testament tells us Jesus was circumcised. Christians claim Jesus is God yet the author tells us this so called God was circumcised how ironic!.

And when eight days were accomplished for the circumcising of the child, his name was called JESUS, which was so named of the angel before he was conceived in the womb. (Luke 2:21)


Jesus who according to Christians is supposed to be God is CIRCUMCISED ! And if we take what the original reason for CIRCUMCISION is, that is making a COVENANT BETWEEN GOD. How does God get circumcised and make a covenant with himself?


Christians may defend this by saying Jesus is not God rather he is the son of God? Again this wouldn't make no sense that the Son who's supposed to always have been with his father has to circumcise himself and MAKE A COVENANT WITH HIS FATHER? It just gets worse each time Christians try to make Jesus God or the son of God. 

It makes more sense that Jesus was a Man who underwent all physical changes just like any human would.

Weak like woman?

Your TROOPS will be as WEAK and HELPLESS as WOMAN. The gates of your land will be opened wide to the enemy and set on fire and burned. (Nahum 3:13)



Behold, thy people in the midst of thee are women,.... Or like women, weak and feeble, fearful and timorous; frightened at the first approach of the enemy; run away, and run up and down in the utmost consternation and distress, having neither skill nor courage to oppose them; 

Also The NIV hides the embarrassing misogyny by changing “women in your midst” to “weaklings”: “Look at your troops—they are all weaklings.”

Isaiah 19:16 — The NRSV correctly reads “On that day the Egyptians will be like women, and tremble with fear before the hand that the Lord of hosts raises against them.” The NIV eliminates the embarrassing misogynism as well as the polytheistic epithet of Yahweh: “ In that day the Egyptians will become weaklings. They will shudder with fear at the uplifted hand that the Lord Almighty raises against them.” (Note: this mistranslation was introduced with the TNIV. See this discussion of the passage at John Hobbins’s blog.)

Super confusing!

Prompted by a reader email, we decided to take a closer look at the biblical accounts of the great flood.  We’ve long pointed out the discrepancies between the stated 40 day and 150 day duration.  However, the reader suggested that these difference could be interpreted as when the flood receded enough for Noah to reach dry land versus when the flood waters were completely gone.  The following is our honest attempt to objectively review and make sense of the material.


The account of the great flood and all verse references below are from the book of Genesis.  To mathematically compute duration, it is important to understand that day references are provided in two ways: number of days; and dates corresponding to Noah’s age (e.g. in his 17th month, 17th day).  Verse 7:11 states that Noah’s age is 600 years, two months and 17 days when the flood began.  We will take this age at face value for the basis of determining the duration of the flood.  [We won’t get into the absurdity of a man living more than 600 years.  That’s an article topic of its own.]

We begin with the following verse which provides the starting point of the great flood and duration references:

7:11 – In the six hundredth year of Noah’s life, in the second month, the seventeenth day of the month, the same day were all the fountains of the great deep broken up, and the windows of heaven were opened.
7:17 – And the flood was forty days upon the earth;
7:24 – And the waters prevailed upon the earth an hundred and fifty days.
8:3 – And the waters returned from off the earth continually: and after the end of the hundred and fifty days the waters were abated.

From the above, it’s confusing that the flood was “forty days upon the earth” – but then “prevailed upon earth… an hundred and fifty days”.  Some have argued that v7:17 was just an interim period, that upon 40 days, the ark lifted.  And, that the true duration that the “waters prevailed” was 150 days.  Let’s reserve judgment and assume this is true for a moment (even though this contradicts what is taught in most Churches about a 40 day flood).  Moving on, we immediately find a contradiction to this assumption.

8:4 And the ark rested in the seventh month, on the seventeenth day of the month, upon the mountains of Ararat.

Assuming the above month reference refers back to Noah’s age in v7:11, the ark rested on the 150 days [(7 months + 17 days) – (2 months + 17 days for Noah’s age) = 5 months; 5 months x 30 days = 150 days)].  So, this agrees with v7:24 by again stating 150 days.  However, v8:3 says the waters were abated and v8:4 says the ark came to rest on Mt Ararat.  Wouldn’t it be impossible for the ark to land on a mountain if the waters were already abated?  With the water gone, wouldn’t the ark have come to rest on lower land?

The very next verse contains a new contradictions:

8:5 And the waters decreased continually until the tenth month: in the tenth month, on the first day of the month, were the tops of the mountains seen.

Verses 8:3 & 8:4 both reference 150 days.  However, v8:5 indicates that the waters were still receding continually and it wasn’t until 253 days that the tops of the mountains were seen.  [(10 months + 30 days) – (2 months + 17 days for Noah’s age) = (8 months + 13 days) = (8 month x 30 days) + 13 days = total of 253 days).  HOW COULD THE ARK COME TO REST ON MT. ARARAT AFTER 150 DAYS IF THE TOPS OF MOUNTAINS WEREN’T SEEN UNTIL 253 DAYS?

Continuing on, v8:6 & v8:9 say Noah sent out a raven & dove after 40 days, but the dove came back finding no land.

8:6 And it came to pass at the end of forty days, that Noah opened the window of the ark which he had made:
8:9 But the dove found no rest for the sole of her foot, and she returned unto him into the ark, for the waters were on the face of the whole earth

Then, in v8:10-11, he waited another 7 days for a total of 47 days and the dove came back with an olive leaf indicating land.  Doesn’t this contradict both previous accounts of 40 days and 150 days.

8:10 And he stayed yet other seven days; and again he sent forth the dove out of the ark; 8:11 And the dove came in to him in the evening; and, lo, in her mouth was an olive leaf pluckt off: so Noah knew that the waters were abated from off the earth.

Next, v8:13 says that the waters didn’t dry up until Noah’s age was 601 years, 1 month, 1 day.  That makes 314 days [(601 years + 1 month + 1 day) – (600 years + 2 months + 17 days) = 314 days].  This doesn’t agree with any previous accounts.

8:13 And it came to pass in the six hundredth and first year, in the first month, the first day of the month, the waters were dried up from off the earth: and Noah removed the covering of the ark, and looked, and, behold, the face of the ground was dry.

And, It gets worse.  Verse 8:14 says that the earth wasn’t dried until Noah’s age was 601 years, 2 months, 27 days.  That makes 370 days [(601 years + 2 months + 27 days) – (600 years + 2 months + 17 days) = 370 days).   It strains our logical reasoning that one verse says the waters were dried up at 314 days and the the very next verse says the earth dried at 370 days.
8:14 And in the second month, on the seven and twentieth day of the month, was the earth dried.

Summary of Biblical Accounts of the Great Flood:
  • 40 days, length of flood (v7:17)
  • 47 days, dove discovers land  (v8:10-11)
  • 150 days, waters were abated  (v8:3)
  • 150 days, ark came to rest on Mt. Ararat (v8:4)
  • 253 days, to see tops of mountains (v8:5)
  • 314 days, waters dried up (v8:13)
  • 370 days, earth dried (v8:14)
After reexamining the account in Genesis, we are left with even more confusion and contradictions than when we began.  Let’s take a little liberty here and provide our simplified version:
The flood lasted for 40 days until the dove discovers land on the 47th day.  But then, it wasn’t until 150 days that all the waters were abated.  Then, on the 150th day, the ark mysteriously came to rest on Mt. Ararat instead of a lower altitude.  It was a miracle that the ark landed on the mountain because all the waters were already gone.  For some reason, nobody could see the tops of mountains until the 253rd day because of the water, even though it was long gone and the ark had landed.  Finally, at 314 days the water was all dried up, but the earth wasn’t dry until 370 days.  It’s another miracle that the earth wasn’t dry until 56 days after the water was all dried up.

Do Any First Century Historians Mention the Jesus of Christianity?

"......What is a good source? A contemporary historian -- that is to say, an historian that lived and wrote during the time in which Christ is said to have lived. Any historian living or writing after that time could not have seen the events with his own eyes -- possibly could not have even known any witnesses personally. Any historian writing decades or centuries after the events could only write of those things which he had heard others say. In other words, he would be writing hearsay -- secondhand accounts of what Christ's followers said about him.

Certainly, this cannot be considered as reliable information. The followers of any cult leader certainly would exaggerate the character of the man they follow. As you shall see, whatever the authenticity of the documents turns out to be, none of the historians in question were contemporaries of Christ.

Here is something to keep in mind as you read this article. Ask yourself this question. Could historic passages have been forged? Could the volumes of the historians have been tampered with? The answer is: yes they could have. Where were these historic volumes stored? In the local public library? In individuals' private homes? No. They were in the posession of the Church, who studied from them and made copies of them. In what form did these writings take? On a typeset page, bound like a modern book? No. The printing press was not invented for a further 1300 years. The fact that the Church could write means that the forgeries could have been made. The Church had the opportunity, the means, and the motive to forge historical documents.

This simple truth is widely admitted by Christian scholars. One case in point is our first example: Josephus Flavius, a famous historian. There are two alleged mentions of Jesus in his histories. The first of them, the more extensive and more famous one, is no longer quoted by Christian scholars. That is because they know it is a blatant Christian forgery. The second passage is still in use.

"Josephus, the renowned Jewish historian, was a native of Judea. He was born in 37 A. D., and was a contemporary of the Apostles. He was, for a time, Governor of Galilee, the province in which Christ lived and taught. He traversed every part of this province and visited the places where but a generation before Christ had performed his prodigies. He resided in Cana, the very city in which Christ is said to have wrought his first miracle. He mentions every noted personage of Palestine and describes every important event which occurred there during the first seventy years of the Christian era. But Christ was of too little consequence and his deeds too trivial to merit a line from this historian's pen." (Remsberg, Ibid.)

But first things first. Josephus was not a contemporary historian. He was born in the year 37 C.E., several years after Jesus' alleged death. There is no way he could have known about Jesus from is own personal experience. At best, he could have recorded the activities of the new cult of Christianity, and what they said about their crucified leader. So, even if Josephus wrote about Jesus, it is not a credible source. The first "Jesus Passage" is discussed below. The paragraph on Jesus was added to Josephus's work at the beginning of the 4th century, during Constantine's reign, probably by or under the order of Bishop Eusebius, who was known for saying that it was permissible for Christians to lie in order to further the Kingdom of God. This behavior is justified directly in the New Testament, where Paul writes in the 3rd Chapter of Romans: "For if the truth of God hath more abounded through my lie unto his glory, why yet am I also judged as a sinner?"


John E. Remsberg, The Christ

Late in the first century Josephus wrote his celebrated work, "The Antiquities of the Jews," giving a history of his race from the earliest ages down to his own time. Modern versions of this work contain the following passage:

"Now, there was about this time Jesus, a wise man, if it be lawful to call him a man, for he was a doer of wonderful works; a teacher of such men as receive the truth with pleasure. He drew over to him both many of the Jews, and many of the Gentiles. He was [the] Christ; and when Pilate, at the suggestion of the principal men amongst us, had condemned him to the cross, those that loved him at the first did not forsake him; for he appeared to them alive again the third day, as the divine prophets had foretold these and ten thousand other wonderful things concerning him; and the tribe of Christians, so named from him, are not extinct at this day" (Book IXVIII, Chap. iii, sec. 3).

For nearly sixteen hundred years Christians have been citing this passage as a testimonial, not merely to the historical existence, but to the divine character of Jesus Christ. And yet a ranker forgery was never penned.

Its language is Christian. Every line proclaims it the work of a Christian writer. "If it be lawful to call him a man." "He was the Christ." "He appeared to them alive again the third day, as the divine prophets had foretold these and ten thousand other wonderful things concerning, him." These are the words of a Christian, a believer in the divinity of Christ. Josephus was a Jew, a devout believer in the Jewish faith -- the last man in the world to acknowledge the divinity of Christ. The inconsistency of this evidence was early recognized, and Ambrose, writing in the generation succeeding its first appearance (360 A. D.) offers the following explanation, which only a theologian could frame: "If the Jews do not believe us, let them, at least, believe their own writers. Josephus, whom they esteem a very great man, hath said this, and yet hath he spoken truth after such a manner; and so far was his mind wandered from the right way, that even he was not a believer as to what he himself said; but thus he spake, in order to deliver historical truth, because he thought it not lawful for him to deceive, while yet he was no believer, because of the hardness of his heart, and his perfidious intention."

Its brevity disproves its authenticity. Josephus' work is voluminous and exhaustive. It comprises twenty books. Whole pages are devoted to petty robbers and obscure seditious leaders. Nearly forty chapters are devoted to the life of a single king. Yet this remarkable being, the greatest product of his race, a being of whom the prophets foretold ten thousand wonderful things, a being greater than any earthly king, is dismissed with a dozen lines.

It interrupts the narrative. Section 2 of the chapter containing it gives an account of a Jewish sedition which was suppressed by Pilate with great slaughter. The account ends as follows: "There were a great number of them slain by this means, and others of them ran away wounded; and thus an end was put to this sedition." Section 4, as now numbered, begins with these words: "About the same time also another sad calamity put the Jews into disorder." The one section naturally and logically follows the other. Yet between these two closely connected paragraphs the one relating to Christ is placed; thus making the words, "another sad calamity," refer to the advent of this wise and wonderful being. The early Christian fathers were not acquainted with it. Justin Martyr, Tertullian, Clement of Alexandria, and Origen all would have quoted this passage had it existed in their time. The failure of even one of these fathers to notice it would be sufficient to throw doubt upon its genuineness; the failure of all of them to notice it proves conclusively that it is spurious, that it was not in existence during the second and third centuries.

As this passage first appeared in the writings of the ecclesiastical historian, Eusebius, as this author openly advocated the use of fraud and deception in furthering the interests of the church, as he is known to have mutilated and perverted the text of Josephus in other instances, and as the manner of its presentation is calculated to excite suspicion, the forgery has generally been charged to him. In his "Evangelical Demonstration," written early in the fourth century, after citing all the known evidences of Christianity, he thus introduces the Jewish historian: "Certainly the attestations I have already produced concerning our Savior may be sufficient. However, it may not be amiss. if, over and above, we make use of Josephus the Jew for a further witness" (Book III, p. 124).

Chrysostom and Photius both reject this passage. Chrysostom, a reader of Josephus, who preached and wrote in the latter part of the fourth century, in his defense of Christianity, needed this evidence, but was too honest or too wise to use it. Photius, who made a revision of Josephus, writing five hundred years after the time of Eusebius, ignores the passage, and admits that Josephus has made no mention of Christ. Modern Christian scholars generally concede that the passage is a forgery. Dr. Lardner, one of the ablest defenders of Christianity, adduces the following arguments against its genuineness: "I do not perceive that we at all want the suspected testimony to Jesus, which was never quoted by any of our Christian ancestors before Eusebius. Nor do I recollect that Josephus has anywhere mentioned the name or word Christ, in any of his works; except the testimony above mentioned, and the passage concerning James, the Lord's brother. It interrupts the narrative. The language is quite Christian. It is not quoted by Chrysostom, though he often refers to Josephus, and could not have omitted quoting it had it been then in the text. It is not quoted by Photius, though he has three articles concerning Josephus. Under the article Justus of Tiberias, this author (Photius) expressly states that the historian [Josephus], being a Jew, has not taken the least notice of Christ. Neither Justin in his dialogue with Trypho the Jew, nor Clemens Alexandrinus, who made so many extracts from ancient authors, nor Origen against Celsus, has ever mentioned this testimony. But, on the contrary, in chapter xxxv of the first book of that work, Origen openly affirms that Josephus, who had mentioned John the Baptist, did not acknowledge Christ" (Answer to Dr. Chandler).

Again Dr. Lardner says: "This passage is not quoted nor referred to by any Christian writer before Eusebius, who flourished at the beginning of the fourth century. If it had been originally in in the works of Josephus it would have been highly proper to produce it in their disputes with Jews and Gentiles. But it is never quoted by Justin Martyr, or Clement of Alexandria, nor by Tertullian or Origen, men of great learning, and well acquainted with the works of Josephus. It was certainly very proper to urge it against the Jews. It might also have been fitly urged against the Gentiles. A testimony so favorable to Jesus in the works of Josephus, who lived so soon after our Savior, who was so well acquainted with the transactions of his own country, who had received so many favors from Vespasian and Titus, would not be overlooked or neglected by any Christian apologist" (Lardner's Works, vol.I, chap. iv).

Bishop Warburton declares it to be a forgery: "If a Jew owned the truth of Christianity, he must needs embrace it. We, therefore, certainly conclude that the paragraph where Josephus, who was as much a Jew as the religion of Moses could make him, is made to acknowledge Jesus as the Christ, in terms as strong as words could do it, is a rank forgery, and a very stupid one, too" (Quoted by Lardner, Works, Vol. I, chap. iv).
The Rev. Dr. Giles, of the Established Church of England, says: "Those who are best acquainted with the character of Josephus, and the style of his writings, have no hesitation in condemning this passage as a forgery, interpolated in the text during the third century by some pious Christian, who was scandalized that so famous a writer as Josephus should have taken no notice of the gospels, or of Christ, their subject. But the zeal of the interpolator has outrun his discretion, for we might as well expect to gather grapes from thorns, or figs from thistles, as to find this notice of Christ among the Judaizing writings of Josephus. It is well known that this author was a zealous Jew, devoted to the laws of Moses and the traditions of his countrymen. How, then, could he have written that Jesus was the Christ? Such an admission would have proved him to be a Christian himself, in which case the passage under consideration, too long for a Jew, would have been far too short for a believer in the new religion, and thus the passage stands forth, like an ill-set jewel, contrasting most inharmoniously with everything around it. If it had been genuine, we might be sure that Justin Martyr, Tertullian, and Chrysostom would have quoted it in their controversies with the Jews, and that Origen or Photius would have mentioned it. But Eusebius, the ecclesiastical historian (I, ii), is the first who quotes it, and our reliance on the judgment or even honesty of this writer is not so great as to allow our considering everything found in his works as undoubtedly genuine" (Christian Records, p. 30).

The Rev. S. Baring-Gould, in his "Lost and Hostile Gospels," says: "This passage is first quoted by Eusebius (fl. A. D. 315) in two places (Hist. Eccl., lib. i, c. xi ; Demonst. Evang., lib. iii); but it was unknown to Justin Martyr (A. D. 140) Clement of Alexandria (A. D. 192), Tertullian (A. D. 193) and Origen (A. D. 230). Such a testimony would certainly have been produced by Justin in his apology or in his controversy with Trypho the Jew, had it existed in the copies of Josephus at his time. The silence of Origen is still more significant. Celsus, in his book against Christianity, introduces a Jew. Origen attacks the argument of Celsus and his Jew. He could not have failed to quote the words of Josephus, whose writings he knew, had the passage existed in the genuine text. He, indeed, distinctly affirms that Josephus did not believe in Christ (Contr. Cels. i)."

Dr. Chalmers ignores it, and admits that Josephus is silent regarding Christ. He says: "The entire silence of Josephus upon the subject of Christianity, though he wrote after the destruction of Jerusalem, and gives us the history of that period in which Christ and his Apostles lived, is certainly a very striking circumstance" (Kneeland's Review, p. 169).

Canon Farrar, who has written the ablest Christian life of Christ yet penned, repudiates it. He says: "The single passage in which he [Josephus] alludes to him is interpolated, if not wholly spurious" (Life of Christ, Vol. I, p. 46). The following, from Dr. Farrar's pen, is to be found in the "Encyclopedia Britannica": "That Josephus wrote the whole passage as it now stands no sane critic can believe." "There are, however, two reasons which are alone sufficient to prove that the whole passage is spurious -- one that it was unknown to Origen and the earlier fathers, and the other that its place in the text is uncertain." (Ibid) The Rev. Dr. Hooykaas, of Holland, says: "Flavius Josephus, the well known historian of the Jewish people, was born in A. D. 37, only two years after the death of Jesus; but though his work is of inestimable value as our chief authority for the circumstances of the times in which Jesus and his Apostles came forward, yet he does not seem to have mentioned Jesus himself. At any rate, the passage in his "Jewish Antiquities" that refers to him is certainly spurious, and was inserted by a later and a Christian hand." (Bible for Learners, Vol. III, p. 27) This conclusion of Dr. Hooykaas is endorsed by the eminent Dutch critic, Dr. Kuenen.

Dr. Alexander Campbell, one of America's ablest Christian apologists, says: "Josephus, the Jewish historian, was contemporary with the Apostles, having been born in the year 37. From his situation and habits, he had every access to know all that took place at the rise of the Christian religion. Respecting the founder of this religion, Josephus has thought fit to be silent in history. The present copies of his work contain one passage which speaks very respectfully of Jesus Christ, and ascribes to him the character of the Messiah. But as Josephus did not embrace Christianity, and as this passage is not quoted or referred to until the beginning of the fourth century, it is, for these and other reasons, generally accounted spurious" (Evidences of Christianity, from Campbell-Owen Debate, p. 312).

The Silence of Josephus

J.M. Robertson

When we are considering the possibilities of underlying historical elements in the gospel story, it may be well to note on the one hand the entirely negative aspect of the works of Josephus to that story, and on the other hand the emergence in his writings of personages bearing the name Jesus. If the defenders of the historicity of the gospel Jesus would really stand by Josephus as a historian of Jewry in the first Christian century, they would have to admit that he is the most destructive of all the witnesses against them. It is not merely that the famous interpolated passage (19 Antiq. iii, 3) is flagrantly spurious in every aspect -- in its impossible context; its impossible language of semi-worship ; its "He was (the) Christ"; its assertion of the resurrection; and its allusion to "ten thousand other wonderful things" of which the historian gives no other hint— but that the flagrant interpolation brings into deadly relief the absence of all mention of the crucified Jesus and his sect where mention must have been made by the historian if they had existed. If, to say nothing of "ten thousand wonderful things," there was any movement of a Jesus of Nazareth with twelve disciples in the period of Pilate, how came the historian to ignore it utterly? If, to say nothing of the resurrection story, Jesus had been crucified by Pilate, how came it that there is no hint of such an episode in connection with Josephus' account of the Samaritan tumult in the next chapter?

And if a belief in Jesus as a slain and returning Messiah had been long on foot before the fall of the Temple, how comes it that Josephus says nothing of it in connection with his full account of the expectation of a coming Messiah at that point?

By every test of loyal historiography, we are not merely forced to reject the spurious passage as the most obvious interpolation in all literature: we are bound to confess that the "Silence of Josephus" as is insisted by Professor Smith, is an insurmountable negation of the gospel story. For that silence, no tenable reason can be given, on the assumption of the general historicity of the gospels and Acts. Josephus declares himself to be in his fifty-sixth year in the thirteenth year of Domitian. Then he was born about the year 38. By his own account (Life, § 2), he began at the age of sixteen to "make trial of the several sects that were among us" -- the Pharisees, the Sadducees, and the Essenes -- and in particular he spent three years with a hermit of the desert named Banos, who wore no clothing save what grew on trees, used none save wild food, and bathed himself daily and nightly for purity's sake. Thereafter he returned to Jerusalem, and conformed to the sect of the Pharisees. In the ANTIQUITIES, after describing in detail the three sects before named, he gives an account of a fourth "sect of Jewish philosophy," founded by Judas the Galilean, whose adherents in general agree with the Pharisees, but are specially devoted to liberty and declare God to be their only ruler, facing torture and death rather than call any man lord. A careful criticism will recognize a difficulty as to this section. In § 2, as in the LIFE, "three sects" are specified; and the concluding section has the air of a late addition.

Seeing, however, that the sect of Judas is stated to have begun to give trouble in the procuratorship of Gessius Florus, when Josephus was in his twenties, it is quite intelligible that he should say nothing of it when naming the sects who existed in his boyhood, and that he should treat it in a subsidiary way in his fuller account of them in the ANTIQUITIES.

On what theory, then, are we to explain the total silence of Josephus as to the existence of the sect of Jesus of Nazareth, if there be any historical truth in the gospel story? It is of no avail to suggest that he would ignore it by reason of his Judaic hostility to Christism. He is hostile to the sect of Judas the Galilean. There is nothing in all his work to suggest that he would have omitted to name any noticeable sect with a definite and outstanding doctrine because he disliked it. He seems much more likely, in that case, to have described and disparaged or denounced it. And here emerges the hypothesis that he did disparage or denounce the Christian sect in some passage which has been deleted by Christian copyists, perhaps in the very place now filled by the spurious paragraph, where an account of Jesuism as a calamity to Judaism would have been relevant in the context. This suggestion is nearly as plausible as that of Chwolson, who would reckon the existing paragraph a description of a Jewish calamity, is absurd. And it is the possibility of this hypothesis that alone averts an absolute verdict of non-historicity against the gospel story in terms of the silence of Josephus. The biographical school may take refuge, at this point, in the claim that the Christian forger, whose passage was clearly unknown to Origen, perhaps eliminated by his fraud a historic testimony to the historicity of Jesus, and also an account of the sect of Nazaraeans. But that is all that can be claimed. The fact remains that in the LIFE, telling of his youthful scarch for a satisfactory sect, Josephus says not a word of the existence of that of the crucified Jesus; that he nowhere breathes a word concerning the twelve apostles, or any of them, or of Paul; and that there is no hint in any of the Fathers of even a hostile account of Jesus by him in any of his works, though Origen makes much of the allusion to James the Just, also dismissible as an interpolation, like another to the same effect cited by Origen, but not now extant. There is therefore a strong negative presumption to be set against even the forlorn hypothesis that the passage forged in Josephus by a Christian scribe ousted one which gave a hostile testimony.

Over a generation ago, Mr. George Solomon of Kingston, Jamaica, noting the general incompatibility of Josephus with the gospel story and the unhistorical aspect of the latter, constructed an interesting theory, 3 of which I have seen no discussion, but which merits notice here. It may be summarized thus:

1. Banos is probably the historical original of the gospel figure of John the Baptist.

2. Josephus names and describes two Jesuses, who are blended in the figure of the gospel Jesus: (a) the Jesus (WARS, VI, v, 3) who predicts "woe to Jerusalem"; is flogged till his bones show, but never utters a cry; makes no reply when challenged; returns neither thanks for kindness nor railing for railing; and is finally killed by a stone projectile in the siege; and (b) Jesus the Galilean (LIFE §, 12: 27), son of Sapphias, who opposes Josephus, is associated with Simon and John, and has a following of "sailors and poor people," one of whom betrays him (9 22), whereupon he is captured by a stratagem, his immediate followers forsaking him and flying. Before this point, Josephus has taken seventy of the Galileans with him (5 14) as hostages, and, making them his friends and companions on his journey, sets them "to judge causes." This is the hint for Luke's story of the seventy disciples.

3. The "historical Jesus" of the siege, who is "meek" and venerated as a prophet and martyr, being combined with the "Mosaic Jesus" of Galilee, a disciple of Judas of Galilee, who resisted the Roman rule and helped to precipitate the war, the memory of the "sect" of Judas the Gaulanite or Galilean, who began the anti-Roman trouble, is also transmuted into a myth of a sect of Jesus of Galilee, who has fishermen for disciples, is followed by poor Galileans, is betrayed by one companion and deserted by the rest, and is represented finally as dying under Pontius Pilate, though at that time there had been no Jesuic movement.

4. The Christian movement, thus mythically grounded, grows up after the fall of the Temple. Paul's "the wrath is come upon them to the uttermost" (1 Thess. ii, 16) tells of the destruction of the Temple, as does Hebrews xii, 24-28; xiii, 12-14. This theory of the construction of the myth out of historical elements in Josephus is obviously speculative in a high degree; and as the construction fails to account for either the central rite or the central myth of the crucifixion it must be pronounced inadequate to the data. On the other hand, the author develops the negative case from the silence of Josephus as to the gospel Jesus with an irresistible force; and though none of his solutions is founded-on in the constructive theory now elaborated, it may be that some of them are partly valid.

The fact that he confuses Jesus the robber captain who was betrayed, and whose companions deserted him, with Jesus the "Mosaic" magistrate of Tiberias, who was followed by sailors and poor people, and was "an innovator beyond everybody else," does not exclude the argument that traits of one or the other, or of the Jesus of the siege, may have entered into the gospel mosaic.

Given the clear and undeniable forgery of this Josephus passage, no one, including any Christian, can say that the Christian Church cannot and did not forge historic documents. The fact that Christians do not generally use this passage is testimony to the fact that the guilt of the Church has been recognized. Given all this, what reason do we have for supposing that the second alleged mention of Jesus by Josephus is any more reliable? And if this first passage has been "retired", how long will it take before we see the inevitable demise of the second?

On the second "mention of Jesus"

Excerpt from The Christ, by John E. Remsburg

"But this younger Ananus, who, as we have told you already, took the high priesthood, was a bold man in his temper and very insolent; he was also of the sect of Sadducees, who are very rigid in judging offenders, above all of the rest of the Jews, as we have already observed; when, therefore, Ananus was of this disposition, he thought he had now a proper opportunity. Festus was dead, and Albinus was but upon the road; so he assembled the Sanhedrim of judges and brought before them the brother of Jesus, who was called Christ, whose name was James, and some others; and when he had formed an accusation against them as breakers of the law, he delivered them to be stoned" (Josephus, Antiquities, Book XX, chap. ix, sec. I).

This passage is probably genuine with the exception of the clause, "who was called Christ," which is undoubtedly an interpolation, and is generally regarded as such. Nearly all the authorities that I have quoted reject it. It was originally probably a marginal note. Some Christian reader of Josephus believing that the James mentioned was the brother of Jesus made a note of his belief in the manuscript before him, and this a transcriber afterward incorporated with the text, a very common practice in that age when purity of text was a matter of secondary importance.

The fact that the early fathers, who were acquainted with Josephus, and who would have hailed with joy even this evidence of Christ's existence, do not cite it, while Origen expressly declares that Josephus has not mentioned Christ, is conclusive proof that it did not exist until the middle of the third century or later. Those who affirm the genuineness of this clause argue that the James mentioned by Josephus was a person of less prominence than the Jesus mentioned by him, which would be true of James, the brother of Jesus Christ. Now some of the most prominent Jews living at this time were named Jesus. Jesus, the son of Damneus, succeeded Ananus as high priest that very year; and Jesus, the son of Gamaliel, a little later succeeded to the same office.

To identify the James of Josephus with James the Just, the brother of Jesus, is to reject the accepted history of the primitive church which declares that James the Just died in 69 A.D., seven years after the James of Josephus [see the above quote] was condemned to death by the Sanhedrim. Whiston himself, the translator of Josephus, referring to the event narrated by the Jewish historian, admits that James, the brother of Jesus Christ, "did not die till long afterward."

The brief "Discourse Concerning Hades", appended to the writings of Josephus, is universally conceded to be the product of another writer -- "obviously of Christian origin" -- says the Encyclopedia Britannica.

by Kenneth Harding,

Serpant or Satan?

And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the Devil, and Satan, which deceiveth the whole world: he was cast out into the...